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Bunuel
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Hi Bunuel ,

42 can also be a factor right since 42/d where d = 42 is also an integer , in that case the answer choice should be E.

Bunuel
Official Solution:


If \(n\) is an integer, which of the following could be a factor of both \(4n - 1\) and \(8n + 40\)?

I. 7

II. 21

III. 42


A. I only
B. II only
C. I and II only
D. I and III only
E. I, II, and III


First, notice that since \(n\) is an integer, \(4n - 1\) will always be odd. This means it cannot have any even factors, so 42 is eliminated from the start.

Next, let's rewrite \(8n + 40\) so that \(4n - 1\) appears in the expression. This could help us deduce a connection between the two numbers:

\(8n + 40 =\)

\(= (8n - 2) + 42 =\)

\(= 2(4n - 1) + 42\).

Now, we need to find a divisor, \(d\), such that both \(\frac{4n - 1}{d}\) and \(\frac{2(4n - 1) + 42}{d}\) are integers. Observe that:

\(\frac{2(4n - 1) + 42}{d}= \frac{2(4n - 1)}{d} + \frac{42}{d}\).

Now, if \(\frac{4n - 1}{d}\) is an integer, then \(\frac{2(4n - 1)}{d}\) will also be an integer. This means that for \(\frac{2(4n - 1)}{d} + \frac{42}{d}\) to be an integer, \(\frac{42}{d}\) must also be an integer. Consequently, \(d\) must be an odd factor of 42.

The odd factors of 42 are 1, 3, 7, and 21 (and their negatives).


Answer: C

Please pay attention to the highlighted parts in the solution.
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Bunuel

May i ask what you did to go from 8n+40= to =(8n−2)+42=? I cann't follow the logic behind it?

Thanks in advance!
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Bunuel

May i ask what you did to go from 8n+40= to =(8n−2)+42=? I cann't follow the logic behind it?

Thanks in advance!
What was done there is just simple rearrangement.

8n + 40 was rewritten as (8n - 2) + 42. Why? Because (8n - 2) can be factored as 2(4n - 1), which directly brings in the expression 4n - 1 that we’re analyzing. The extra +42 is added to keep the equality true.

So it’s just a trick: adjust the expression so that 4n - 1 shows up, then work with that.
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