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29 Jun 2021, 03:00
Kudos
Bookmarks
D
Be sure to select an answer first to save it in the Error Log before revealing the correct answer (OA)!
Difficulty:
35%
(medium)
Question Stats:
76% (02:04) correct
24%
(02:36)
wrong
based on 98
sessions
History
Date
Time
Result
Not Attempted Yet
Manoj plans to work at a coffee shop during his summer holidays. He will be paid as per the following schedule: at the end of the first week, he will receive Rs. 1000. At the end of each subsequent week, he will receive Rs.1000, plus an additional amount equal to the sum of all payments he has received in the previous weeks. How much money will Manoj be paid in total if he works for 6 weeks at this coffee shop?
(A) Rs. 18000
(B) Rs. 20000
(C) Rs. 42000
(D) Rs. 63000
(E) Rs. 81000
(A) Rs. 18000
(B) Rs. 20000
(C) Rs. 42000
(D) Rs. 63000
(E) Rs. 81000
04 Jul 2021, 23:49
Kudos
Bookmarks
Payment for =>
1st Week= 1000
2nd Week = 1000+1000 = 2000
3rd Week = 1000+3000 = 4000
4th Week = 1000+5000 = 8000
5th Week = 1000+15000 = 16000
6th Week = 1000+ 31000 = 32000
Total after 6 weeks = 63000
Alternate Solution
The payment for individual weeks are in a GP, hence we can use sum of GP formula:
S = \(\frac{a(r^n-1)}{r-1}\)
where
a = 1000
r = 2
n =6
hence, S = 63000
IMO, D
1st Week= 1000
2nd Week = 1000+1000 = 2000
3rd Week = 1000+3000 = 4000
4th Week = 1000+5000 = 8000
5th Week = 1000+15000 = 16000
6th Week = 1000+ 31000 = 32000
Total after 6 weeks = 63000
Alternate Solution
The payment for individual weeks are in a GP, hence we can use sum of GP formula:
S = \(\frac{a(r^n-1)}{r-1}\)
where
a = 1000
r = 2
n =6
hence, S = 63000
IMO, D
08 Jul 2021, 04:31
Kudos
Bookmarks
Bunuel
Solution -
Manoj plans to work at a coffee shop during his summer holidays and at the end of the first week, he will be paid Rs. 1000/-
At the end of the second week, he will receive Rs. 2000/-
At the end of the third week, he will receive Rs. 4000/- and this goes on.
So, the payment for individual weeks is in Geometric Progression, where the first term, \(a_1\) = 1000
Common Ratio i.e. r = 2 and since we have to find the amount Manoj will be paid in total for 6 weeks and so, n = 6.
Thus, the sum of GP series if r >1 is \(S_n= \frac{(a_1 (r^n-1))}{(r-1)} , r ≠1\)
\(S_n= \frac{(1000(2^6-1))}{(2-1)} = \frac{(1000(64-1))}{1} = 63×1000\) = 63000
Answer Choice-D
