Last visit was: 22 Apr 2026, 07:27 It is currently 22 Apr 2026, 07:27
Close
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Close
Request Expert Reply
Confirm Cancel
User avatar
mrinal2100
Joined: 29 Sep 2008
Last visit: 27 Nov 2013
Posts: 73
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 1
Posts: 73
Kudos: 426
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
daagh
User avatar
Major Poster
Joined: 19 Feb 2007
Last visit: 16 Oct 2020
Posts: 5,262
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 422
Status: enjoying
Location: India
WE:Education (Education)
Expert
Expert reply
Posts: 5,262
Kudos: 42,464
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
imania
Joined: 22 Jun 2010
Last visit: 25 Dec 2014
Posts: 60
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 13
Posts: 60
Kudos: 86
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
daagh
User avatar
Major Poster
Joined: 19 Feb 2007
Last visit: 16 Oct 2020
Posts: 5,262
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 422
Status: enjoying
Location: India
WE:Education (Education)
Expert
Expert reply
Posts: 5,262
Kudos: 42,464
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Does it sound right to say that the wreckage and damage in accidents occurred because of the sales done earlier, excluding all other causes of hazardous driving or any other deficiency that might have occurred after the sale? Does it mean that damages or wreckages will occur only when a car is sold without proper safety standards and not before? Logical predication is an important part of expression, a casualty in this case.
User avatar
imania
Joined: 22 Jun 2010
Last visit: 25 Dec 2014
Posts: 60
Own Kudos:
86
 [1]
Given Kudos: 13
Posts: 60
Kudos: 86
 [1]
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
daagh
Does it sound right to say that the wreckage and damage in accidents occurred because of the sales done earlier, excluding all other causes of hazardous driving or any other deficiency that might have occurred after the sale? Does it mean that damages or wreckages will occur only when a car is sold without proper safety standards and not before? Logical predication is an important part of expression, a casualty in this case.

some cars without safety standards were sold.Then, they were damaged in accidents.
2 actions happened in the past, one took place before another one.
still it's not logical?

sale of those cars is NOT the cause of the accidents, but not meeting standards. I'm not sure whether I'm clear enough daagh.
User avatar
amma4u
Joined: 20 Dec 2009
Last visit: 26 Oct 2020
Posts: 136
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 34
Status:Can't give up
GPA: 3.5
Posts: 136
Kudos: 68
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
A)Many cars that were damaged and completely wrecked in accidents this year were
B)Many cars that were damaged or completely wrecked in accidents this [color=#FF0000]year had been

C)Many cars that accidents damaged and completely wrecked this year have been - we need perfect past tense
D)This year accidents damaged or completely wrecked many cars that will have been - awkward construction
E)This year many of the cars that were damaged and completely wrecked in accidents will be - awkward construction

Hence B.
User avatar
jullysabat
Joined: 02 Oct 2010
Last visit: 08 May 2012
Posts: 67
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 29
Posts: 67
Kudos: 52
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Can some one explain why B is the correct answer.
Because which happened first takes the past perfect form and later one takes the past tense.
But here its differnet. So I am confused.
User avatar
oldstudent
Joined: 20 Jun 2010
Last visit: 31 Jul 2015
Posts: 39
Own Kudos:
226
 [1]
Given Kudos: 27
Status:Last few days....Have pressed the throttle
Concentration: Entrepreneurship,Strategy, Marketing
WE 1: 6 years - Consulting
Posts: 39
Kudos: 226
 [1]
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
jullysabat
Can some one explain why B is the correct answer.
Because which happened first takes the past perfect form and later one takes the past tense.
But here its differnet. So I am confused.

The reason why the majority of cars that were damaged or wrecked in accidents, is bcos they did not adhere to the nation’s transportation safety standards when they were sold. Clearly
event 1 - Was that they were sold without safety standards
event 2 - The got wrecked and damaged in accidents

so event 1 will be used with past perfect and event 2 which comes later will be used with simple past.

Hope this helps
User avatar
oldstudent
Joined: 20 Jun 2010
Last visit: 31 Jul 2015
Posts: 39
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 27
Status:Last few days....Have pressed the throttle
Concentration: Entrepreneurship,Strategy, Marketing
WE 1: 6 years - Consulting
Posts: 39
Kudos: 226
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
daagh
First thing, the cars could either be damaged or wrecked and not both. So A, C and E or out.

On to tense now.

Damage or wreckage happened before selling. So damaged or wrecked requires past perfect while selling requires simple past.

B is the other way around and hence out

On to logic.

D is the only choice left out. But what is important in this passage is the fact that the damaged cars have been sold or will have been sold or will be sold without adhering to rules. This should be the primary focus of the sentence by making it as the main clause while damage or wreckage should play second fiddle. Doesn’t it suffer logical predication? How can we say for sure that many of the cars will have been sold? Going simply by grammar, may be, the cars that were damaged or wrecked ( not damaged and wrecked) will be sold makes some sense. But where is such a choice?

It looks as though the passage tries to emulate some similar one, missing the salient features though.

The official answer is sadly wrong on grammar. Any comments?


How can damage happen before selling???
This is selling of new cars and not the junk cars. Simply the cars were sold without safety standards bcos of which they could not sustain the accidents and were damaged
User avatar
jullysabat
Joined: 02 Oct 2010
Last visit: 08 May 2012
Posts: 67
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 29
Posts: 67
Kudos: 52
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
oldstudent
jullysabat
Can some one explain why B is the correct answer.
Because which happened first takes the past perfect form and later one takes the past tense.
But here its differnet. So I am confused.

The reason why the majority of cars that were damaged or wrecked in accidents, is bcos they did not adhere to the nation’s transportation safety standards when they were sold. Clearly
event 1 - Was that they were sold without safety standards
event 2 - The got wrecked and damaged in accidents

so event 1 will be used with past perfect and event 2 which comes later will be used with simple past.

Hope this helps


Ohh Now i got it.... because the cars were damaged and then sold so there were accidents... Now i got the sequence...
thanks for this clarification.....



Archived Topic
Hi there,
This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
Where to now? Join ongoing discussions on thousands of quality questions in our Sentence Correction (SC - EA only) Forum
Still interested in this question? Check out the "Best Topics" block above for a better discussion on this exact question, as well as several more related questions.
Thank you for understanding, and happy exploring!
Moderators:
GMAT Club Verbal Expert
7391 posts
498 posts
358 posts