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# Match parlance: Is DIVISIBLE same as EVENLY DIVISIBLE?

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Status: 700 (q47,v40); AWA 6.0
Joined: 16 Mar 2011
Posts: 80
GMAT 1: 700 Q47 V40
Match parlance: Is DIVISIBLE same as EVENLY DIVISIBLE?  [#permalink]

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17 Apr 2011, 10:34
In some questions, I am often facing the following wording:

"x is number that is evenly divisible by 1/2".

The expression a is Divisible by b means a = kb for some integer k. The evenness is already embedded in this expression as a = kb means k parts of equal size, b. Emphasising the evenness is not needed.
So in my view, this adjective if deliberately added should be interpreted as the quotient being even. It goes without saying that 1/2 always divides any integer with an even quotient. In other words, this question meant x is always an integer.

But the solution provided to this question interpreted this merely as "leaves no remainder". It went on to take x = 1.5 and drew some conclusion out of it. I am worried as to what exactly is the difference between divisible and evenly divisible. Does it matter on the D-day at all?

Can some gurus comment please?

Regards
Rahul

--== Message from the GMAT Club Team ==--

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This discussion does not meet community quality standards. It has been retired.

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Regards
Rahul

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Posts: 1828
Re: Match parlance: Is DIVISIBLE same as EVENLY DIVISIBLE?  [#permalink]

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17 Apr 2011, 10:55
retro wrote:
In some questions, I am often facing the following wording:

"x is number that is evenly divisible by 1/2".

The expression a is Divisible by b means a = kb for some integer k. The evenness is already embedded in this expression as a = kb means k parts of equal size, b. Emphasising the evenness is not needed.
So in my view, this adjective if deliberately added should be interpreted as the quotient being even. It goes without saying that 1/2 always divides any integer with an even quotient. In other words, this question meant x is always an integer.

But the solution provided to this question interpreted this merely as "leaves no remainder". It went on to take x = 1.5 and drew some conclusion out of it. I am worried as to what exactly is the difference between divisible and evenly divisible. Does it matter on the D-day at all?

Can some gurus comment please?

Regards
Rahul

Not a single question in OG12 that uses "evenly divisible". All of them just use "divisible". Guess GMAT doesn't like to confuse people with unnecessary adjective like this one, at least not in quantitative.

Also, I think "evenly divisible" just means "divisible"- "No remainder" and the quotient should be an integer.

Let's see what others think!!

BTW, what is the source of this question?

--== Message from the GMAT Club Team ==--

THERE IS LIKELY A BETTER DISCUSSION OF THIS EXACT QUESTION.
This discussion does not meet community quality standards. It has been retired.

If you would like to discuss this question please re-post it in the respective forum. Thank you!

To review the GMAT Club's Forums Posting Guidelines, please follow these links: Quantitative | Verbal Please note - we may remove posts that do not follow our posting guidelines. Thank you.

_________________
Re: Match parlance: Is DIVISIBLE same as EVENLY DIVISIBLE? &nbs [#permalink] 17 Apr 2011, 10:55
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# Match parlance: Is DIVISIBLE same as EVENLY DIVISIBLE?

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