Municipalities have begun demanding that private developers

Question

Municipalities have begun demanding that private developers pay an increased share of the costs of expanding  the current road networks, sewer systems, and other public services to accommodate new development projects.

> > > (A) demanding that private developers pay an increased share of the costs of expanding
> > > (B) demanding private developers to pay for an increased share of the costs of expanding
> > > (C) demanding payment by private developers for an increased share of the costs of expanding
> > > (D) to demand that private developers pay for an increased share of the costs to expand
> > > (E) to demand that private developers should pay an increased share of the costs to expand

I had a tough decision between A and B..I think A is right
But in the case of (B), isnt the idiom require X to do Y, right? (the only reason why i think B is incorrect is because i think "to pay for" is not right)
In the case of subjunctives, "demanding that X..." and "demanding X to do .." both right?

bkk145 · Answer

I went with A, but had a tough time not picking B.

mbawaters · Answer

There is a difference in meaning what original is saying and what B is suggesting.
In (A) Municipalties are demanding but not directly to the private developers may be in the courts or to the 3rd body or anything but nothing here suggest that they are asking 'private developers' directly. This is not the case in B 'Municipalities have begun demanding private developers'.
I hope you can read this difference!
Another potential contender of A is D but I felt that demanding, instead of 'to demand', go well with the flow of the sentence.
A.

FN · Answer

to pay in B is wrong..

if we didnt have to pay..in B i might have picked B

A it is

billyjeans · Answer

what is OA?

I think it should be D for the correct usage of subjunctive as stated by MGMAT SC review pg 49:

" demand that somebody do (be) something "

Jamesk486 · Answer

OA is A...
i see the difference between A and B..
but why couldnt the muncipalities directly demand to the private developers?

what is the exact idiom to use here??

TheGMATDoctor · Answer

You can say "require somebody to do something" or (subjunctive)"require that somebody do something" but you cannot say 
 "demand somebody to do something" but rather "demand that somebody do something".
Because of this rule, the answer should be between A and D.  D is incorrect  because of flawed meaning of "pay for an increased share". You should say " pay an increased share of the costs". For example, you should say: "You pay for the tea", but "you pay the price of the tea". 
"pay for" also means "make amends for", "suffer from", "bear the expense of".
"Intended meaning" settles the issue after elimination through grammar (Subjunctive).
This is typical of the tough SC questions in the GMAT.
Regards,

mbawaters · Answer

If original does not have any issues I'd stick with the original unless other choice, with no difference in meaning, is less verbose.

Jamesk486 · Answer

TheGMATDoctor,

you said that its possible to say 
 "require somebody to do something" or (subjunctive)"require that somebody do something" 
BUT you cannot say "demand somebody to do something"

isnt demand and require basically the same meaning?

TheGMATDoctor · Answer

Hi,
Yes, "demand somebody to do something" is not idiomatic in English; that's just the way it is. That's why it's called an idiom. That said,
'to demand" has a stronger connotation than "to require"; "to demand" is to ask with proper authority, as a due right.
Regards.

getafixdruid · Answer

brutal one.
I choose A. The idiom that must be used is "demanding that".
A and E have this construction but E is more awkward with the "should pay".

Municipalities have begun demanding that private developers

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