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noboru
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JimHuckle
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yep depends on what's after the of.
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Yes it does depend upon the noun after "OF" accroding to manhattan SC ...

But what does Kaplan 800 say ? is there something different ?
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If you want to quote from MGMAT SC book, part of the "SANAM" pronouns is the "N" - None. Just like the other "SAAM", "N" will depend on the noun after of; however, don't forget to read the bottom of page 40 on your MGMAT SC book, in parenthesis at the very bottom it says "(Technically, none of + plural noun can take either a singular or a plural verb form.)
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noboru
Hi all,

None of my friends have been able [...] or

None of my friends has been able [...]???

Manhattan GMAT SC says something and Kaplan GMAT 800 the opposite...

:shock: :shock:

PS: 2 days to go!!!

I studied this issue and I've come to interesting conclusion: I didn't find any official question that tests none of [] + verb s-v agreement. Maybe somebody know such example?



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