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Can someone explain this clearly and in detail?
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Premise: Once a company has an extensive sales network in a foreign market and substantial sales, those markets should be treated similarly to domestic markets.

Conclusion: Only in countries with initial sales/representation do marketing methods have to differ from domestic activities.

So the logic is:
Extensive network + substantial sales → treat like domestic markets.
No extensive network → treat differently.

Find the assumption

The argument assumes that having an extensive sales network and substantial sales makes a foreign market similar enough to domestic markets to use the same marketing methods. But what if even with substantial sales, cultural, legal, or consumer-behavior differences require different marketing methods? The argument overlooks that possibility. So the hidden assumption is: Large/established foreign markets are adaptable to domestic marketing methods.

(A) Not an assumption.

(B) This is irrelevant

(C) not about preference, but about effect on marketing methods.

(D) No! as the argument is about marketing methods, not the networks themselves.

(E) Yes, this matches: it assumes that large/established foreign markets can be treated like domestic ones in terms of marketing.

Answer: E
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