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05 Apr 2013, 09:15
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Can I algebraically prove that if p/q<1 then q/(p^2) is not necessarily greater than 1? Picking numbers is easy, I am just wondering if I can algebraically solve it.
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05 Apr 2013, 09:47
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Not very clear on the problem without specifics about whether p & q are positive integers
Because if p > 0 and q > 0 and integers then p/q < 1 => q/p > 1 and q/p2 can be >=< 1
Because if p > 0 and q > 0 and integers then p/q < 1 => q/p > 1 and q/p2 can be >=< 1
05 Apr 2013, 12:01
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nt2010
Yes sorry, p and q are positive integers. When you say can q/p2 be greater or less than 1, is there a way we can reach that algebraically.
