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karun_aggarwal
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I will go with 'A'.
kwasi7 & folaa3, can one of you tell me why you chose 'B' over 'A'
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Folaa3
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rthothad
I will go with 'A'.
kwasi7 & folaa3, can one of you tell me why you chose 'B' over 'A'


I picked B because if the same people who can debate the aesthetic merits of these overwrought, disquieting, sometimes gruesome works of art, can’t dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument, then it should be “none of which “

Almost Like saying [all the student can do x, but none “of the studentsâ€
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rthothad
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[quote="Folaa3"]Almost Like saying [all the student can do x, but none “of the studentsâ€
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patrickpui
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Folaa3
rthothad
I will go with 'A'.
kwasi7 & folaa3, can one of you tell me why you chose 'B' over 'A'


I picked B because if the same people who can debate the aesthetic merits of these overwrought, disquieting, sometimes gruesome works of art, can’t dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument, then it should be “none of which “

Almost Like saying [all the student can do x, but none “of the studentsâ€
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luminos24
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Between A and B...its A for me....

"None" doesn't go with "People"....

All can do this....but none can do that.....
Everybody can do this....but no body can do that....
People can do this....but no body can do that......

my 2 cents....

cheers!
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Interesting question.
I'ld choose B. Karun, what's the source?
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DLMD
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I go with B, because "their" in A sounds ambitgous.
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greycellz
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Will go with A.
the 'none' in B can refer to none of the works of art
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jpv
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It was asked sometime back and this is what I concluded from that post.

no one == none, but difference can be how they are used in the sentence.

(A): People can debate the aesthetic merits of these x works of art, but no one can dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.

Here "no one" Pronoun but means any person. Person can be or can not be in the group of the Ppl in the main clause.

(B): People can debate the aesthetic merits of these x works of art, but none (of those ppl) can dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.

But here, none is a pronoun directly refers to PPL in the previous clause. and so the correct answer.


Do I sound stupid? or does it make sense. :roll: Please comment!!
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karun_aggarwal
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ok guys OA IS B

OE====NONE (of those people ) can...........

i too got it wrong!
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i think it's a matter of concision. No one takes 2 words, while a single none can relay the same message.
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chunjuwu
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ywilfred
i think it's a matter of concision. No one takes 2 words, while a single none can relay the same message.


Hi, I think it's a matter of subject-verb agreement.

People can debate the aesthetic merits of these overwrought, disquieting, sometimes gruesome works of art, but no one can dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.

A. but no one can dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
I think it's wrong.

B. but none can dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.

none can be used as a plural or singular pronoun.

The choice between a singular or plural verb depends on the desired effect. Both options are acceptable in this sentence: None of the conspirators has (or have) been brought to trial.

Here is the link.
https://dictionary.reference.com/search?q=none
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'their' is a possesive plural noun and in this sentence it points only to one subject -> the art pieces. You're not trying to match no one and none with 'their' because 'their' is not the right pronoun to modify 'no one' and 'none'



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