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People can debate the aesthetic merits of these overwrought, disquieting, sometimes gruesome works of art, but no one can dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument. A. but no one can dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
B. but none can dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
C. but not a one can dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
D. but no person can dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
E. but none can dispute to their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
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I will go with 'A'. kwasi7 & folaa3, can one of you tell me why you chose 'B' over 'A'
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I picked B because if the same people who can debate the aesthetic merits of these overwrought, disquieting, sometimes gruesome works of art, can’t dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument, then it should be “none of which “
Almost Like saying [all the student can do x, but none “of the studentsâ€
I will go with 'A'. kwasi7 & folaa3, can one of you tell me why you chose 'B' over 'A'
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I picked B because if the same people who can debate the aesthetic merits of these overwrought, disquieting, sometimes gruesome works of art, can’t dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument, then it should be “none of which “
Almost Like saying [all the student can do x, but none “of the studentsâ€
It was asked sometime back and this is what I concluded from that post.
no one == none, but difference can be how they are used in the sentence.
(A): People can debate the aesthetic merits of these x works of art, but no one can dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
Here "no one" Pronoun but means any person. Person can be or can not be in the group of the Ppl in the main clause.
(B): People can debate the aesthetic merits of these x works of art, but none (of those ppl) can dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
But here, none is a pronoun directly refers to PPL in the previous clause. and so the correct answer.
Do I sound stupid? or does it make sense. Please comment!!
Originally posted by chunjuwu on 14 Apr 2005, 23:24.
Last edited by chunjuwu on 14 Apr 2005, 23:30, edited 1 time in total.
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ywilfred
i think it's a matter of concision. No one takes 2 words, while a single none can relay the same message.
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Hi, I think it's a matter of subject-verb agreement.
People can debate the aesthetic merits of these overwrought, disquieting, sometimes gruesome works of art, but no one can dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
A. but no one can dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
I think it's wrong.
B. but none can dispute their creators' mastery of the paintbrush as a blunt instrument.
none can be used as a plural or singular pronoun.
The choice between a singular or plural verb depends on the desired effect. Both options are acceptable in this sentence: None of the conspirators has (or have) been brought to trial.
'their' is a possesive plural noun and in this sentence it points only to one subject -> the art pieces. You're not trying to match no one and none with 'their' because 'their' is not the right pronoun to modify 'no one' and 'none'
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Hi there,
This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
Still interested in this question? Check out the "Best Topics" block above for a better discussion on this exact question, as well as several more related questions.