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njvenkatesh
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GMAT Prep 12 22 Jul 2006, 07:19
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Can someone help explaining this question ?

Thanks,
Venkatesh.



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hawk
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GMAT Prep 12 22 Jul 2006, 09:06
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A) Statement 1 alone is sufficient
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njvenkatesh
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GMAT Prep 12 22 Jul 2006, 11:07
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Thanks, But the answer is C. Don't know how how it is arrived.
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cejismundo
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GMAT Prep 12 22 Jul 2006, 11:31
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In order for the condition to hold, a and b must be the same sign. If they are the same sign, they will be on the same quadrant regardless of their value.

So the first step would be to think about what the question is asking you. The question is asking you two things:

are 'x' and 'y' the same sign, and if so, are they the same sign as 'a' and 'b'.

xy> 0 tells you 'x' and 'y' are the same sign but gives you no clue about whether they are the same sign as 'a' and 'b'. So it is no sufficient.

ax>0 alone tells you 'a' and 'x' are the same sign, but still doesnt answer whether 'x' and 'y' are the same sign.

Taken together, you know that 'a', 'b', 'x', and 'y' all have the same sign therefore they must be in the same quadrant.

The answer is C.
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Futuristic
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GMAT Prep 12 22 Jul 2006, 17:43
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njvenkatesh
Can someone help explaining this question ?

Thanks,
Venkatesh.
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This is a good one.
C is indeed correct



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Hi there,
This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
Where to now? Join ongoing discussions on thousands of quality questions in our Quantitative Questions Forum
Still interested in this question? Check out the "Best Topics" block above for a better discussion on this exact question, as well as several more related questions.
Thank you for understanding, and happy exploring!