Hi Riyaagoell,Good question. The reason this one looks scary is the range (
41 to
80) and the messy cubic, but there's a clean
4-step routine that cracks it. paragw's solution follows exactly this path - let me lay out the
thinking behind it so you can repeat it.
Step 1 - Factor the expressionNever test a raw cubic. Pull out the common x:
x3 − 2x2 − 3x = x(x2 − 2x − 3) = x(x − 3)(x + 1)
Now you're asking: when is
x(x − 3)(x + 1) divisible by
40?
Step 2 - Break 40 into coprime pieces40 = 8 × 5, and
8 and
5 share no factors. So the product must be divisible by
5and by
8 - handle each separately, then combine.
Divisible by 5: look at the three factors mod
5. The product is a multiple of
5 exactly when one factor is. That happens at x ≡ 0, 3, 4 (mod 5) -
3 winning remainders.
Divisible by 8: just test x =
0 through
7 in the product. Only x ≡ 0, 3, 7 (mod 8) work -
3 winning remainders.
Step 3 - CombineSince
5 and
8 are coprime, every pairing of a mod-
5 winner with a mod-
8 winner gives one distinct remainder mod
40. So the favorable remainders are
3 × 3 = 9 out of the
40 possible remainders mod
40.
Step 4 - Use the range cleverlyHere's the elegant part:
41 to
80 is
40 consecutive integers, which is exactly one complete cycle of remainders mod
40. So each remainder from
0 to
39 shows up
exactly once. That means
9 favorable remainders =
9 favorable values.
Probability =
9/40 -
therefore answer A.
The big takeaways:
factor first,
split the modulus into coprime factors, and remember that any block of
n consecutive integers hits each remainder mod
n exactly once - that last trick is what saves you from testing all
40 numbers.
Answer: ARiyaagoell
Requesting a way to solve this question. How to approach such questions?