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----

40 = 8 x 5. So, we need at least 3 "2"s and at least one "5" from (x-3)(x)(x+1).


Case 1: x is even

Observe -> if x is even, then the other 2 terms are odd. Then, the only way to get 3 "2"s is if x is a multiple of 8.

But remember, this is not the only condition. We also have to get "5".

So, why not quickly check all the 8 multiples for cases where the product will contain a 5 as well?

(x-3)x(x+1)Counted?
4548Yes - contains both 5 and 8
535657No
6465Yes - contains both 5 and 8
697273No
80Yes - contains both 5 and 8


# Cases to be counted = 3 (48, 64, 80)

Case 2: x is odd

In this case, the other two terms are even. But if the other two terms are even numbers that are not multiple of 4 (like 46 or 42), then, again, the product of the three terms cannot contain 8. Observe the example in the diagram for reference.

So,
- (x-3) and (x+1) are 4-multiples (of the form 4k)
- Therefore, x is of the form 4k+3

Again, remember, this alone is not sufficient. We also need to ensure that the product contains a 5.
(x-3)x(x+1)Counted?
404344Yes
444748No
485152No
525556Yes
565960Yes
606364Yes
646768No
687172No
727576Yes
767980Yes

# Cases to be counted = 6 (43, 55, 59, 63, 75, 79)

Total # Favorable cases = 6 + 3 = 9

Total # outcomes = 40 (# numbers from 41 to 80)

The required Probability = 9/40. Choice A.

---
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Hi Riyaagoell,

Good question. The reason this one looks scary is the range (41 to 80) and the messy cubic, but there's a clean 4-step routine that cracks it. paragw's solution follows exactly this path - let me lay out the thinking behind it so you can repeat it.

Step 1 - Factor the expression

Never test a raw cubic. Pull out the common x:

x3 − 2x2 − 3x = x(x2 − 2x − 3) = x(x − 3)(x + 1)

Now you're asking: when is x(x − 3)(x + 1) divisible by 40?

Step 2 - Break 40 into coprime pieces

40 = 8 × 5, and 8 and 5 share no factors. So the product must be divisible by 5and by 8 - handle each separately, then combine.

Divisible by 5: look at the three factors mod 5. The product is a multiple of 5 exactly when one factor is. That happens at x ≡ 0, 3, 4 (mod 5) - 3 winning remainders.

Divisible by 8: just test x = 0 through 7 in the product. Only x ≡ 0, 3, 7 (mod 8) work - 3 winning remainders.

Step 3 - Combine

Since 5 and 8 are coprime, every pairing of a mod-5 winner with a mod-8 winner gives one distinct remainder mod 40. So the favorable remainders are 3 × 3 = 9 out of the 40 possible remainders mod 40.

Step 4 - Use the range cleverly

Here's the elegant part: 41 to 80 is 40 consecutive integers, which is exactly one complete cycle of remainders mod 40. So each remainder from 0 to 39 shows up exactly once. That means 9 favorable remainders = 9 favorable values.

Probability = 9/40 - therefore answer A.

The big takeaways: factor first, split the modulus into coprime factors, and remember that any block of n consecutive integers hits each remainder mod n exactly once - that last trick is what saves you from testing all 40 numbers.

Answer: A

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Thank you for explaining it so well. I am still unable to understand step 4. If possible can you please help me understand the range?
egmat
Hi Riyaagoell,

Good question. The reason this one looks scary is the range (41 to 80) and the messy cubic, but there's a clean 4-step routine that cracks it. paragw's solution follows exactly this path - let me lay out the thinking behind it so you can repeat it.

Step 1 - Factor the expression

Never test a raw cubic. Pull out the common x:

x3 − 2x2 − 3x = x(x2 − 2x − 3) = x(x − 3)(x + 1)

Now you're asking: when is x(x − 3)(x + 1) divisible by 40?

Step 2 - Break 40 into coprime pieces

40 = 8 × 5, and 8 and 5 share no factors. So the product must be divisible by 5and by 8 - handle each separately, then combine.

Divisible by 5: look at the three factors mod 5. The product is a multiple of 5 exactly when one factor is. That happens at x ≡ 0, 3, 4 (mod 5) - 3 winning remainders.

Divisible by 8: just test x = 0 through 7 in the product. Only x ≡ 0, 3, 7 (mod 8) work - 3 winning remainders.

Step 3 - Combine

Since 5 and 8 are coprime, every pairing of a mod-5 winner with a mod-8 winner gives one distinct remainder mod 40. So the favorable remainders are 3 × 3 = 9 out of the 40 possible remainders mod 40.

Step 4 - Use the range cleverly

Here's the elegant part: 41 to 80 is 40 consecutive integers, which is exactly one complete cycle of remainders mod 40. So each remainder from 0 to 39 shows up exactly once. That means 9 favorable remainders = 9 favorable values.

Probability = 9/40 - therefore answer A.

The big takeaways: factor first, split the modulus into coprime factors, and remember that any block of n consecutive integers hits each remainder mod n exactly once - that last trick is what saves you from testing all 40 numbers.

Answer: A


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