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12 Aug 2008, 12:35
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I have studied for 5 weeks.
vs.
I have been studying since July 1st.
Are both of these correct, and do they mean the same thing?
Another alternative, "I have studied since July 1st", sounds wrong.
Is that because "since" requires you to put the verb in present tense?
vs.
I have been studying since July 1st.
Are both of these correct, and do they mean the same thing?
Another alternative, "I have studied since July 1st", sounds wrong.
Is that because "since" requires you to put the verb in present tense?
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12 Aug 2008, 12:37
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Both of your study examples are correct, and they mean very different things.
"I have studied for 5 weeks." This means that at some point in the past, you studied for 5 weeks. It implies that you are no longer studying; you're done.
"I have been studying since July 1st." means you started studying on July 1st and continue to study even today, without breaks since then.
"I have studied for 5 weeks." This means that at some point in the past, you studied for 5 weeks. It implies that you are no longer studying; you're done.
"I have been studying since July 1st." means you started studying on July 1st and continue to study even today, without breaks since then.
PatrickBateman
12 Aug 2008, 12:45
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but the syntax for present perfect is:
[has/have + past participle]
then what is the difference between:
"I have studied for 5 weeks"
vs.
"I studied for 5 weeks".
[has/have + past participle]
then what is the difference between:
"I have studied for 5 weeks"
vs.
"I studied for 5 weeks".
jallenmorris
