Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.
Customized for You
we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Track Your Progress
every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance
Practice Pays
we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Thank you for using the timer!
We noticed you are actually not timing your practice. Click the START button first next time you use the timer.
There are many benefits to timing your practice, including:
The Target Test Prep course represents a quantum leap forward in GMAT preparation, a radical reinterpretation of the way that students should study. Try before you buy with a 5-day, full-access trial of the course for FREE!
Prefer video-based learning? The Target Test Prep OnDemand course is a one-of-a-kind video masterclass featuring 400 hours of lecture-style teaching by Scott Woodbury-Stewart, founder of Target Test Prep and one of the most accomplished GMAT instructors
Be sure to select an answer first to save it in the Error Log before revealing the correct answer (OA)!
Difficulty:
55%
(hard)
Question Stats:
50%
(01:11)
correct 50%
(01:24)
wrong
based on 6
sessions
History
Date
Time
Result
Not Attempted Yet
A Sugar merchant sells sugar 20% above cost price. More over he adds 20% impurities. what is his gain percentage ?
A. 40% B. 44% C. 50% D. 62.5%.
Somebody please help me in getting correct answer :-
My solution is :-
Let us consider 100gm = 100$ - cost price. So, 1gm = 1$ Now as he sells 20% above cost price. So, Selling price 1gm = 1*(1.2)$ Eventually for 100gm = 100 * (1.2)$ = 120 $. Now, as per question he added 20% impurity. So, let us consider he sells 100gm. For, 100gm of 20% impurity = 20gm impurity. Obviously he end up with 80gm + 20gm (Pure + impurity). So for 80gm Pure sugar he pays 80$ and 20% profit of cost Price which is equal to 80* (1.2) = 96$ . But total selling price still he is getting is 120$ for 100gm sugar. And actual price is 96$ for 100gm (adding 20gm impure and 80gm pure.) So, he is making profit of (120-96)$ = 24$.
So, Profit percentage is 24%. Which is not correct answer.
Archived Topic
Hi there,
This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
Still interested in this question? Check out the "Best Topics" block below for a better discussion on this exact question, as well as several more related questions.