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Psychotherapy has been described as a form of moral coercion. However

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Psychotherapy has been described as a form of moral coercion. However  [#permalink]

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New post 07 May 2011, 16:45
3
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A
B
C
D
E

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Psychotherapy has been described as a form of moral coercion. However, when people are coerced, their ability to make choices is restricted, and the goal of psychotherapy is to enhance people’s ability to make choices. Hence, psychotherapy cannot possibly be a form of coercion.

Which one of the following describes a flaw in the argument?


(A) The position being argued against is redefined unfairly in order to make it an easier target.

(B) Psychotherapy is unfairly criticized for having a single goal, rather than having many complex goals.

(C) No allowance is made for the fact that the practice or results of psychotherapy might run counter to its goals.

(D) The goals of psychotherapy are taken to justify any means that are used to achieve those goals.

(E) It offers no argument to show that moral coercion is always undesirable.
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Re: Psychotherapy has been described as a form of moral coercion. However  [#permalink]

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New post 08 May 2011, 19:04
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This is a hard one. The central argument seems to be that because coercion is not the intent of psychotherapy, there's no way that it can end up being coercive. Almost as if the very intention not to contribute to a harm negates any potential for that harm. To me the central argument is flawed because even with the best intentions a goal can become subverted -- eg, communism was supposed to be "rule by the workers" even though it almost always turned out to be just another form of autocracy against the working class, just this time (and ironically) justified through the name of that very class (yeah, perhaps it's not a clean analogy, maybe even a bit too strong, but I just can't think of anything else at 11pm).

Based on that, the best answer for me is C -- it most closely fits my communism analogy: although intending to do the opposite of coercion, psychotherapy might end up simply being a form of that with the biases and approaches of the therapist, inherently subjective in and of themselves given the nature of the field. A doesn't really apply because negation isn't necessarily redefinition. B doesn't apply because the goals aren't the issue here; rather, the way the goals are reached definitely is. D doesn't apply because the argument is negating the harm, not justifying it any way (even if the result is definitely "ends justify means" in a sense). E doesn't apply because negation really has nothing to do with how worthy / unworthy coercion is.

If there's any hole in my reasoning, I welcome comments. As I can benefit from it too. :-)
(Thanks in advance.)

fanatico wrote:
Psychotherapy has been described as a form of moral coercion. However, when people are coerced, their ability to make choices is restricted, and the goal of psychotherapy is to enhance people’s ability to make choices. Hence, psychotherapy cannot possibly be a form of coercion.
Which one of the following describes a flaw in the argument?
(A) The position being argued against is redefined unfairly in order to make it an easier target.
(B) Psychotherapy is unfairly criticized for having a single goal, rather than having many complex goals.
(C) No allowance is made for the fact that the practice or results of psychotherapy might run counter to its goals.
(D) The goals of psychotherapy are taken to justify any means that are used to achieve those goals.
(E) It offers no argument to show that moral coercion is always undesirable.

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Re: Psychotherapy has been described as a form of moral coercion. However  [#permalink]

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New post 08 May 2011, 21:34
B and E are POE.

Among A,C and D - nothing has been redefined. POE A,No means has been discussed here,hence POE D.

C is a weak choice, yet the best one among the lot.
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Re: Psychotherapy has been described as a form of moral coercion. However  [#permalink]

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New post 09 May 2011, 22:09
I chose A. My reasoning was that the argument redefines "moral" coercion by applying a general principle of coercion to "moral" coercion.
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Re: Psychotherapy has been described as a form of moral coercion. However  [#permalink]

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New post 10 May 2011, 00:03
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A: That psychotherapy is a form of moral coercion is not redefined. One of its goal is mentioned and since its counter to position, the position is rejected as a whole
B: Psychotherapy is not criticized anywhere in the argument
D: there is no justification of means- the goal is taken to reject a possible definition.
E: Desirability or not of moral coercion is not discussed and neither is it the point of the argument
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Re: Psychotherapy has been described as a form of moral coercion. However  [#permalink]

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New post 01 Jan 2014, 16:56
This question entails a flaw in the line of reasoning. Hope this is helpful:

A. The position being––"psychotherapy is not a form of moral coercion" is not being redefined. The position is being stated in terms of its goal, and how its goal runs contrary to being classified as "moral coercion". (This answer is irrelevant)

B. The premise focuses on one goal, and does not state it should have many complex goals. (This answer is out of scope/irrelevant)

C. The goal of psychotherapy is to enhance people's ability to make choices. But what if the practice results counter to the intention. Would this still be considered as moral coercion. Although it is the goal of psychotherapy to ensure enhancement in people's ability. This does not make the line of reasoning infallible against an external course of action contrary to the goal. The premise assumes that the goal runs free of error and that this goal is in fact a concrete reason. Goals do not ensure assurance, though it is ideal, it is not tightly sealed reasoning. (THIS IS THE ANSWER)

D. Is it one goal or two goals? Watch out for keywords, and what "means" does it refer to in the premise? This is a tricky answer choice, but careful analysis with word choice renders the correct answer.(Misleading)

E. The issue here is not what it is not doing, albeit the absence of an argument, but rather what is the line of reasoning doing that is flawed. This answer choice works best with flaw questions concerning numbers. percentages, and studies---where the premise omits important data to skew it in the favor of what it is arguing for. (Wrong Flaw)
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Re: Psychotherapy has been described as a form of moral coercion. However  [#permalink]

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New post 01 May 2015, 04:54
fanatico wrote:
Psychotherapy has been described as a form of moral coercion. However, when people are coerced, their ability to make choices is restricted, and the goal of psychotherapy is to enhance people’s ability to make choices. Hence, psychotherapy cannot possibly be a form of coercion.
Which one of the following describes a flaw in the argument?
(A) The position being argued against is redefined unfairly in order to make it an easier target.
(B) Psychotherapy is unfairly criticized for having a single goal, rather than having many complex goals.
(C) No allowance is made for the fact that the practice or results of psychotherapy might run counter to its goals.
(D) The goals of psychotherapy are taken to justify any means that are used to achieve those goals.
(E) It offers no argument to show that moral coercion is always undesirable.



I Felt that was an easy one..dont know why..
:-D
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Re: Psychotherapy has been described as a form of moral coercion. However  [#permalink]

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New post 29 Sep 2018, 01:55
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Re: Psychotherapy has been described as a form of moral coercion. However &nbs [#permalink] 29 Sep 2018, 01:55
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Psychotherapy has been described as a form of moral coercion. However

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