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Updated on: 23 Nov 2011, 13:37
Originally posted by pittguy578 on 23 Nov 2011, 13:15.
Last edited by pittguy578 on 23 Nov 2011, 13:37, edited 1 time in total.
Last edited by pittguy578 on 23 Nov 2011, 13:37, edited 1 time in total.
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I took the GMAT a couple of years back and scored a 690. I put off going to school due to family issues. I am reapplying this year and have some time..so I figured I would retake the test to see if I can get a higher score.
I feel very stupid as I remember doing these type of questions in the past, but I am drawing a blank on this particular question.
I have even looked at the answer and am still getting slightly confused when it comes to the end.
I know how they get to:
√(n+1)+√n /√(n+1)^2 -√n^2
I am just confused when simplifying the expression further-the next line down where they have
√(n+1)+(√n) /(n+1)-n
How did they get the (√(n+1)^2-√(n)^2 out of the denominator?
Any assistance is appreciated.
I feel very stupid as I remember doing these type of questions in the past, but I am drawing a blank on this particular question.
I have even looked at the answer and am still getting slightly confused when it comes to the end.
I know how they get to:
√(n+1)+√n /√(n+1)^2 -√n^2
I am just confused when simplifying the expression further-the next line down where they have
√(n+1)+(√n) /(n+1)-n
How did they get the (√(n+1)^2-√(n)^2 out of the denominator?
Any assistance is appreciated.
Archived Topic
Hi there,
This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
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23 Nov 2011, 13:38
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I attached a photo of the question to the original message..too much typing otherwise:)
