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"It had never made sense to me before that those who allege abuse often wait a decade or more to reveal what has happened to them"
I read this sentence in the paper. Just wondering if someone can explain the verb tense in this sentence between HAD and HAS.
Thanks,
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"It had never made sense to me before that those who allege abuse often wait a decade or more to reveal what has happened to them"
The correct sentence should be as follows "It has never made sense to me before that those who allege abuse often wait a decade or more to reveal what had happened to them"
The present perfect tense,has, must be used when the condition still holds good.A past perfect tense,had,must be used when there are two actions in the past ,and it must be used to represent the earlier action between the two.
In the sentence the logic still does not make sense to her ,hence must be represented by a present perfect tense.The abuse to the victims has happened sometime in the past.Hence the use of had. Hope my explanation helps !!
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