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matterhorn762
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rjacobs
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solaris1
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matterhorn762
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That's not exactly true:

A 50Q, 44V might be a 760 (https://gmatclub.com/forum/8-t67974) or it might be a 770 (https://gmatclub.com/forum/8-t74857).

More amazingly, a 750 might be a 50Q, 40V (https://gmatclub.com/forum/8-t66785) but a 50Q, 41V is a 740! (https://gmatclub.com/forum/8-t73035).

So my question is how can somebody get a higher total score with lower composite scores? Based on the above examples, a 50Q, 40V is better than a 50Q, 41V.

Or more generally, how come the same composite scores yield different results? I've seen up to a 20 point spread for the exact same composite scores. For example, if you scored a 50Q, 41V it might be 760 for you but 740 for somebody else (https://gmatclub.com/forum/8-t73035).

None of this is a big deal. Just curious as to how to interpret this data.
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NickTW
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I remember reading somewhere (OG11?) that your final composite score is also based on the difficulty of the questions you answered during the test. Apparently, two people can take the test side by side and, despite getting the same number of Qs right/wrong, one can have a considerably more "difficult" exam overall and the test adjusts for that. Hence a very difficult Q50,V41 might be adjusted higher than a relatively easy Q50,V42? Pure speculation of course - but makes some sense to me.
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