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rvajpeyi
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Thanks for responding.

The correct answer is supposedly "A". The explanation being, "past perfect is required because there are two actions, one ending before the other." This question was from a Kaplan test.

However, I don't understand this explanation, because the clause that uses past-perfect ('..municipal will had made the boast a reality...') happened *after* the 'Sanfransiscans mocked the claim.' The past-perfect, should be in the first clause and not the second. My understanding of past-perfect is that it's used to show the action which happened first. Would you agree?

I chose 2, because both the actions happened in the past so the 2nd clause, which is underlined, can't use a future tense and therefore I used simple tense.

BTW, I didn't choose 4 because it modified municipal from noun, in the original sentence, to adverb.
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yes there are two actions involved and municipal will had made the boast a reality is the earlier one. See.
yet within 20 years a powerful municipal will had made this boast a reality.
Got it?
okay, see it this way
municipal will had made this boast a reality before passing 20 years.
earlier action- municipal will had made this boast a reality
later action- passing of 20 years.

Ans. is A



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