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Re: Since, we were all having so much fun with inequalities.. I [#permalink]
MA wrote:
But, let me ask you gus, why x is not >=0? i know it does not fit to the inequality, but how is it?

ok, i got it. x^2(x-1)>= 0
x^2 >= 0, x >=0 , x<=0,
x cannot be >=o, x can only be <=0.

therefore, x>=1, x<=0.
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Re: Since, we were all having so much fun with inequalities.. I [#permalink]
I don't think its legal to multiply by x^3 in an inequality.

I think MA you have done that in arriving at your solution.

Because you don't know if the sign will change or not. I am concluding this from the thread on number properties:

"x>1/x
Again you CAN'T multiply both sides by x because you don't know if x is positive or negative. What you have to do is to move the right side to the left:
x-1/x>0
"

I think multiplying by x^2 is ok.

Is this notion correct?
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Re: Since, we were all having so much fun with inequalities.. I [#permalink]
I'd add another question: how could you multiply the 2 members of the inequality by x^4 if x could be = 0?

I solved this way:
1/x^3-1/x^2 <= 0
1/x^2(1/x-1)<=0
since 1/x^2 is always positive, the sign is determined by 1/x-1
so 1/x<=1 => x>=1 (I lost the "x<0" solution)
Where is the mistake?
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Re: Since, we were all having so much fun with inequalities.. I [#permalink]
thearch wrote:
I'd add another question: how could you multiply the 2 members of the inequality by x^4 if x could be = 0?

I solved this way:
1/x^3-1/x^2 <= 0
1/x^2(1/x-1)<=0
since 1/x^2 is always positive, the sign is determined by 1/x-1
so 1/x<=1 => x>=1 (I lost the "x<0" solution)
Where is the mistake?


x can't be = 0....as we have terms in 1/x, which will make 1/x = infinity...in ur soln, everything is correct except when u reverse
1/x <= 1....u can't just say x > = 1....consider when x < 0, that also satisfies 1/x <= 1
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Re: Since, we were all having so much fun with inequalities.. I [#permalink]
yes, I get it now. Thanks



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