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gurudabl
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I thought the above question in the following way --> I understand he has given good ratings to the MEN in the team .. but what is the possibility that he gave the % 65 ratings to women who even did not deserve it. what if there were only 10% female that deserved the 4+ rating but since he was biased to women he has driven the ratings of the women to better rating.

that is the gap in the thought process the question was looking for. In the option A (all were men) only strengthen that his ratings for men are justified but it does not tell what is the gap in the thinkinh
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Type: find the flaw in the argument.

Conclusion: the manager has not discriminated against male employees during performance appraisal.

A. A large number of the employees whom the manager evaluated were male.
- this would actually support the argument, not weaken it.
B. Many managers find it difficult to be objective when awarding ratings to employees since they always have a personal bias/favorites.
- irrelevant to the passage.
C. The manager is more biased against male employees who complained to HR department than the ones who did not.
- ''more biased'' would imply that the manager is biased against everyone; it's just that the manager tends to have a stronger dislike for those who complained. (C) does not help weaken the conclusion cited.
D. The partiality against male employees that the manger is accused of has been of male employees who did not get good ratings last year.
- this does not weaken the conclusion.
E. A greater percent of male employees deserved to get 4+ ratings, while a smaller percent female employees should have got such ratings, than the final numbers. - now we know that a greater percent of male employees who deserved higher ratings ended up receiving lower ratings, whereas greater percent of female employees who deserved lower ratings ended up getting higher ratings. (E) would therefore support the contention that the manager is indeed biased towards the female employees. Therefore, (E) is the right answer choice.
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someone help me, kindly tell why A is wrong
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gurudabl
By elimination my final two options were A and E (the official answer).
It completely makes sense to me why option E is the right answer. If a greater % of male employees were to receive higher ratings then the manager would actually still be biased towards male employees.
However, my concern is about not getting a clear cut reason to eliminate option A.
This was my logic according to option A. As large number of employees were male, let's say total employees were 300 = 200 (male) + 100 (female)
Male (160/200) = 80% rating which means he may be discriminating against 40 male employees.
Female (65/100) = 60 % rating which means he may be discriminating against only 35 employees.
45>35 which implies that he is still discriminating against a greater number of male employees.
Any help would be appreciated!!

Here, you are assuming that all the rest 40 male employees deserve 4 or higher rating. It could be that only additional 20 male employees actually deserved higher rating vs 35 female employees, then your argument will fall right as 20<35? So, A is an ambiguous statement.
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Anshuman0902
someone help me, kindly tell why A is wrong

The total number of males and females is not important here. What matters is how many females deserved a good rating vs how many actually got a good rating. A similar situation for men might help. If 10% females deserved the rating and 60% females got the rating and 80% males deserved the rating and 76% males got the rating, this is still biasness. The total number of males and females is irrelevant here.
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Pre-thinking:

Conclusion: The manager has not discriminated against male employees during performance appraisal.

Premise on which it is based: He has given a rating of 4 or higher (upon 5) to 80% of the male employees under him while giving such ratings to only 65% of the female employees.

Clearly, whether a manager has been biased or not is not dependent on the absolute proportion of male/female employees he has rated highly but rather on the relative comparison between how many were rated highly and how many deserved it. This is the major flaw in the argument.

Let us examine the answer choices.


A. A large number of the employees whom the manager evaluated were male. We are concerned with proportion of male and female employees - the absolute number of either does not matter. Eliminate.

B. Many managers find it difficult to be objective when awarding ratings to employees since they always have a personal bias/favorites. This does not address this manager in any way. Eliminate.

C. The manager is more biased against male employees who complained to HR department than the ones who did not. We are concerned with bias for/against male employees vis-a-vis female employees. Bias within different groups of male employees does not impact the conclusion. Eliminate.

D. The partiality against male employees that the manger is accused of has been of male employees who did not get good ratings last year. Same reason as (C). Eliminate.

E. A greater percent of male employees deserved to get 4+ ratings, while a smaller percent female employees should have got such ratings, than the final numbers. Correct answer and consistent with our pre-thinking.

Hope this helps.
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We can easily eliminate options B, C, & D. Between A & E, A is supporting the argument (as male employee number is more, 80% will be more, hence it support the argument)

E is a clear winner
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