Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.
Customized for You
we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Track Your Progress
every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance
Practice Pays
we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Thank you for using the timer!
We noticed you are actually not timing your practice. Click the START button first next time you use the timer.
There are many benefits to timing your practice, including:
Still interested in this question? Check out the "Best Topics" block below for a better discussion on this exact question, as well as several more related questions.
Steve has two kids and one of them is a boy. What is the probability the other child is also a boy? A) 1.00 B) 0.75 C) 0.50 D) 0.33 E) 0.25
Show more
There are three perfectly legitimate answers to this question, depending on how we've come to learn that one of Steve's children is a boy:
• if we see Steve walking around a supermarket with a random one of his children, and that child is a boy, then the probability the other child is a boy is 1/2. The biological sex of the child in the supermarket has nothing to do with that of the child at home -- so if we just learn one specific child is a boy, the answer is 1/2
• if Steve's children are school age, and we learn one of them is enrolled at King Preparatory, an all-boys school, and we know Steve would always send a son to King Preparatory, then there are three equally probable scenarios where Steve could send a son to King Preparatory: he had a girl then a boy, a boy then a girl, or two boys. So then the answer is 1/3 (or the answer is 1/3 in any situation where we somehow learn Steve has at least one boy)
• if Steve just tells us "I have two children and one of them is a boy", then the probability the other child is a boy is presumably zero, because why wouldn't Steve just say "I have two children and both of them are boys"?
the above all assuming the probability a randomly born child is a boy is 1/2 and a girl is 1/2. I'd assume the answer is meant to be 1/3 here, and that we're meant to understand from the question that Steve has at least one son, but it's really not possible to guess from the wording what the question truly means.
Archived Topic
Hi there,
This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
Still interested in this question? Check out the "Best Topics" block above for a better discussion on this exact question, as well as several more related questions.