Last visit was: 01 May 2026, 21:39 It is currently 01 May 2026, 21:39
Close
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Close
Request Expert Reply
Confirm Cancel
User avatar
MathRevolution
User avatar
Math Revolution GMAT Instructor
Joined: 16 Aug 2015
Last visit: 27 Sep 2022
Posts: 10,063
Own Kudos:
20,026
 [20]
Given Kudos: 4
GMAT 1: 760 Q51 V42
GPA: 3.82
Expert
Expert reply
GMAT 1: 760 Q51 V42
Posts: 10,063
Kudos: 20,026
 [20]
1
Kudos
Add Kudos
19
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
nick1816
User avatar
Retired Moderator
Joined: 19 Oct 2018
Last visit: 12 Mar 2026
Posts: 1,841
Own Kudos:
8,521
 [3]
Given Kudos: 707
Location: India
Posts: 1,841
Kudos: 8,521
 [3]
3
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
MathRevolution
User avatar
Math Revolution GMAT Instructor
Joined: 16 Aug 2015
Last visit: 27 Sep 2022
Posts: 10,063
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 4
GMAT 1: 760 Q51 V42
GPA: 3.82
Expert
Expert reply
GMAT 1: 760 Q51 V42
Posts: 10,063
Kudos: 20,026
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
ArunGour
Joined: 29 Jul 2021
Last visit: 23 Aug 2024
Posts: 16
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 37
Location: India
Posts: 16
Kudos: 9
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
When we substitute x and y with 1′s1′s,
we have a1 + a2 + a3 +…..+ a7 + a8 + a9
= a1(1)2(1)2(1)2(1)2 + a2(1)2(1)(1)2(1) + a3(1)2(1)2 +…..+ a7(1)2(1)2 + a8(1)(1) + a9.

=(203(1)2−199(1)−3)(72(1)2+27(1)+1)=(203(1)2−199(1)−3)(72(1)2+27(1)+1)

=1∗100=1∗100

=100=100

Therefore, A is the answer.
Answer: A


can someone help here why we are considering 1 for x,y both
User avatar
Feb2024
Joined: 27 Jan 2024
Last visit: 19 Oct 2025
Posts: 50
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 1,542
Posts: 50
Kudos: 15
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
The fact of the matter is you do not even need to consider x and y as 1.

You can go about solving the question by opening up the brackets and expanding the expression.

Next, you can simplify sum of the coefficients. It is easily solvable and you will reach at the same answer.
ArunGour
When we substitute x and y with 1′s1′s,
we have a1 + a2 + a3 +.....+ a7 + a8 + a9
= a1(1)2(1)2(1)2(1)2 + a2(1)2(1)(1)2(1) + a3(1)2(1)2 +.....+ a7(1)2(1)2 + a8(1)(1) + a9.

=(203(1)2−199(1)−3)(72(1)2+27(1)+1)=(203(1)2−199(1)−3)(72(1)2+27(1)+1)

=1∗100=1∗100

=100=100

Therefore, A is the answer.
Answer: A


can someone help here why we are considering 1 for x,y both
Moderators:
Math Expert
110001 posts
Tuck School Moderator
852 posts