NischalP
GMATNinjaCould you help explain why D could not be a possible reason for disparity?
The wage disparity in the passage is that "if fringe benefits are not considered, a typical United States garment worker in 1979 earned 46 percent of a typical auto worker's wages."
So, the correct answer will help
explain why auto workers earn so much more than garment workers.
Here's (D):
Quote:
(D) The auto industry faces more competition from companies outside the United States paying low wages than does the garment industry.
This answer choice tells us that auto companies face MORE foreign competition than do garment companies. In addition, these international auto companies pay low wages to their workers.
This could actually incentivize American auto companies to pay their workers
lower wages in order to drive down costs and compete with foreign auto companies. Garment companies, meanwhile, were not facing as much foreign competition, and therefore would not have been under pressure to lower wages.
This doesn't explain why auto workers' wages were so much
higher than garment workers' wages, so (D) is out.
I hope that helps!