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zoom612
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deowl
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paddyboy
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I'm joining with paddyboy in his question to Deowl.
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deowl
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Well, guys. Since it is not an actual GMAT question, (A) could be an answer. But, from my own , and from many others', experience GMAT writers never use so as to in correct answers. I do not have clear
explanation for this, but you can checkit youself in 1000SC or OG. May be they consider it redundant because in most cases it could be substituted with to. Honestly, I don't know. Once again, it is my personal observation and you are on your own here.
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jaynayak
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Completely agree with deowl.......

so as to is never used in GMAT in this form........ its mostly wrong if you see this structure....... the real structure as put by deowl is So X as to B.

Did lot of mistakes to get this thing ingrained in my brain.

The answer should be D
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GMATT73
"it" refers to the council.

(D)

:24


Agree with D but would like to know how it refers to only the council, it could possibly refer to the government also
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D seems fine here... all others either have pronoun reference problem or "so as to" is incorrect

OA?
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GMATT73
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sumitsarkar82
GMATT73
"it" refers to the council.

(D)

:24

Agree with D but would like to know how it refers to only the council, it could possibly refer to the government also


The council met......... so that it could avoid ........

the ...... in between is just describing the purpose of the meeting. The government is clearly not the subject of the sentence so the pronoun "it" does have a clear referent.



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