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655-705 (Hard)|   Non-Math Related|                  
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nihilre
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The rate of growth in global coffee consumption has been falling 26 Nov 2025, 13:26
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got it. thanks so much for the prompt response!
Bunuel
2. Which one of the following data ranges in the second graph most clearly indicates that the final sentence of the Discussion tab involves oversimplification?



The final sentence in the Discussion tab says that coffee consumption in Brazil increased along with income only during 1993 to 1998. But the second graph shows that both income and consumption also rose between 1988 and 1989. That period contradicts the claim, proving the statement is an oversimplification.

The correct answer is 1988 to 1989.


The final sentence claims that coffee consumption in Brazil increased only when income was rising (1993-1998).

A contradiction would be another period when both income and consumption rose together, showing that this pattern wasn’t unique to 1993-1998.

The period you mention, 1998-2003, isn’t that. Income fell while consumption rose. That’s not a contradiction, it’s simply a different pattern, showing that consumption can rise even when income declines.
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The rate of growth in global coffee consumption has been falling 27 Nov 2025, 07:28
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In the first graph, the roughly equal sizes of the bubbles representing India and China show that in 2003 those countries were roughly equal in population. And the bubbles' very low positions in the graph show that consumers in both countries consumed comparatively little coffee per capita. But the bubbles' positions along the horizontal axis show that in 2003 India produced about 5 million 60 kg bags of coffee, whereas China produced less than 500,000 60 kg bags of coffee. Much more coffee was domestically produced in India than in China, though the two countries were similarly large in population and low in per-capita coffee consumption; thus it appears that increasing consumption of domestically produced coffee had greater potential in India than in China to boost world coffee demand.

The correct answer is Yes.


I did not get 3 part of 1st que. It is clear that production is less in china than india. In 1st tab of discussion it is said that emerging market has more potential than matured market. so prod is less in china means it is emerging market it must have greater potential as compared to india where prod is already far ahead of china....
Sajjad1994
Official Explanation

1. For each of the following statements, select Yes if, based on the information provided in the passage or the first graph or both, the statement would have been true in 2003. Otherwise, select No.

The first graph indicates that it includes, for each major coffee-producing country other than Brazil, the amount of coffee produced by the country in 2003 and the per capita amount of coffee consumed by the country. The line at the top of the graph indicates that Brazil's per-capita coffee consumption in 2003 is 4.5 kg per year, greater than that of each of the other countries in the graph. The text accompanying the graph indicates that Brazil's coffee production exceeds that of Central America. The graph indicates that each of the major coffee-producing countries in 2003 produced less than the combined production of the countries of Central America. Therefore, each of the major coffee-producing countries produced less coffee in 2003 than did Brazil.

The correct answer is Yes.

While both the discussion and the first graph pertain to coffee consumption among those living in coffee-producing countries, neither suggests that this consumption comes entirely from coffee produced in that country.

The correct answer is No.

In the first graph, the roughly equal sizes of the bubbles representing India and China show that in 2003 those countries were roughly equal in population. And the bubbles' very low positions in the graph show that consumers in both countries consumed comparatively little coffee per capita. But the bubbles' positions along the horizontal axis show that in 2003 India produced about 5 million 60 kg bags of coffee, whereas China produced less than 500,000 60 kg bags of coffee. Much more coffee was domestically produced in India than in China, though the two countries were similarly large in population and low in per-capita coffee consumption; thus it appears that increasing consumption of domestically produced coffee had greater potential in India than in China to boost world coffee demand.

The correct answer is Yes.

2. Which one of the following data ranges in the second graph most clearly indicates that the final sentence of the Discussion tab involves oversimplification?

The Discussion tab's final sentence says "for the 20 years up to 2003 in Brazil, it was only during the period 1993 to 1998 that coffee consumption increased as income was increasing." If this sentence involves oversimplification, there must have been some period outside the years 1993 to 1998 during which both coffee consumption and income were increasing in Brazil. In the second graph, such simultaneous increases would be represented by both the blue bars and the black line increasing in height from left to right in a section of the graph representing some years before 1993 or after 1998. And indeed there is exactly one such section, representing the years 1988 and 1989, in which the blue bars and the black line both increase in height from left to right. So the data shown in the graph for the period 1988 to 1989 indicate that the Discussion tab's final sentence involves oversimplification.

The correct answer is D.

3. Assuming each of the following statements is true, select Yes if the statement helps explain trends shown in the second graph in a way that is consistent with information in the passage. Otherwise, select No.

The discussion indicates that the Brazilian institutional investment to develop domestic coffee consumption yielded a large increase in coffee sales over ten years. The second graph shows that Brazil's per capita coffee consumption increased steadily from 1995 through 2001 after several years of relative stability in the early 1990s. If Brazil's institutional investment program began in 1993, it could help explain that steady increase in per capita consumption from 1995 through 2001.

The correct answer is Yes.

The second graph shows that Brazil's per-capita monthly income fell significantly from 2000 to 2003. Since the passage indicates that Brazil was a major coffee-producing country, an economic recession resulting from a decline in worldwide demand for coffee beginning in 1999 could help explain this trend.

The correct answer is Yes.

If the statement is taken as an explanation of Brazil's increase in per-capita coffee consumption, it would conflict with the information in the passage indicating that the increase in consumption was due to institutional investment. If it is merely taken as a description of how Brazil's increase in per-capita coffee consumption coincided with the global per-capita rate of coffee production, it would have no explanatory value.

The correct answer is No.
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The rate of growth in global coffee consumption has been falling 27 Nov 2025, 10:07
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manish8242
I did not get 3 part of 1st que. It is clear that production is less in china than india. In 1st tab of discussion it is said that emerging market has more potential than matured market. so prod is less in china means it is emerging market it must have greater potential as compared to india where prod is already far ahead of china....

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You are misreading the passage. It does not say “emerging markets have more potential than mature markets” in general. It says that in mature markets the cost of increasing consumption is probably higher than in emerging markets such as Brazil, and that the highest returns on promotion are in emerging markets of coffee producing countries.

For statement 3 we are not asking which country is “more emerging.” The question is where increasing consumption of domestically produced coffee has greater potential to boost world demand. China producing less coffee does not make it better for this purpose, it just means there is less domestic coffee to absorb. India produces much more coffee, while both countries have low per capita consumption and large populations, so increasing domestic consumption in India can absorb far more coffee and therefore has greater potential.
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The rate of growth in global coffee consumption has been falling 02 Mar 2026, 05:16
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How are u establishing that higher coffee production in India relates to higher potential for domestic consumption? Which part of which tab suggests that?
Bunuel
1. For each of the following statements, select Yes if, based on the information provided in the passage or the first graph or both, the statement would have been true in 2003. Otherwise, select No.



• Coffee production and per capita coffee consumption in Brazil are significantly higher than in most of the major coffee producing countries.

The text in the first graph says that in 2003 Brazil’s production was much higher than that of Central America, which has the highest production among all shown in the graph. This means Brazil had the highest coffee production overall. The graph also shows that Brazil’s per capita consumption was 4.5 kilograms, which is much higher than the second highest, Costa Rica, at about 3 kilograms.

Answer: Yes.

• The coffee consumed in the major coffee producing countries comes entirely from domestic production.

Neither the passage nor the graph says that all coffee consumed in these countries comes from domestic production. The first graph only shows how much coffee each country produces and consumes but does not indicate where the consumed coffee comes from. Therefore, we cannot conclude that consumption is entirely domestic.

Answer: No.

• As a means of boosting world coffee demand, increasing consumption of domestically produced coffee has greater potential in India than in China.

The graph shows that India produces much more coffee than China. Both countries have similar very low per-capita coffee consumption and similar large populations (similar bubble sizes). Since India’s domestic production is far greater, promoting internal coffee consumption there could absorb more of its own output and contribute more to global demand growth. Hence, the potential is greater in India than in China.

Answer: Yes.

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The rate of growth in global coffee consumption has been falling 02 Mar 2026, 05:30
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shanalshekhar
How are u establishing that higher coffee production in India relates to higher potential for domestic consumption? Which part of which tab suggests that?

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“Potential” here means how much extra domestically produced coffee a country could realistically absorb by raising its own consumption.

In the graph, India and China both have very low per capita consumption and similarly large populations, but India produces much more coffee than China. So India has a larger domestic supply to absorb, meaning higher potential.

Also, check this post for more.
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