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rbcola
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anandsebastin
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GMAT 1: 740 Q48 V42
GMAT 1: 740 Q48 V42
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B
P of 1st white: 2/4
P of 2nd red : 2/3
P of 3rd red : 1/2
Putting them together: 2/4*2/3*1/2 = 1/6
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amorica
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I went this route...

there's a total of 24 possible combinations (4 * 3 * 2 * 1)...

there are only 4 possible combinations that result in both reds in the middle... thus 4/24 = 1/6
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I think in these types of questions, forget about permutations and combinations

just see what conditions satisf, it is w r r w

first white prob = 1/4, second red = 2/3, third red = 1/2, 4th will be white left

so answer = 1/4*2/3*1/2*1 = 1/6
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iced_tea
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jainan24
I think in these types of questions, forget about permutations and combinations

just see what conditions satisf, it is w r r w

first white prob = 1/4, second red = 2/3, third red = 1/2, 4th will be white left

so answer = 1/4*2/3*1/2*1 = 1/6


first white prob should be 2/4 (since fav outcomes = 2)

so 2/4 * 2/3 * 1/2 = 1/6
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cicerone
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Totally 6 arrangements are possible out of which one is the favourable event here.

So 1/6



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