The table below displays data from the different divisions of Company

Official Explanation

(1) Understand the prompt, and (2) understand the question. Take real time to do so here, since you have complex data and a statement that is worded in a cumbersome way. Now, as you consider your approach, it may seem as if the answer to this question is No. How can you prove such a statement? All we know about performance plastics is that Company X has 26% of the U.S. market and 30% of the world market, and that both positions are #1 (meaning that no other company has a larger share of either market). Well, lets play “devils advocate” and try to poke a hole in the statement.

Imagine that the statement is false. That is, there is no other country in which X s share is greater than it is in the U.S. So in every other country, X s share of the market is 26% or less. Everywhere in the world, including in the U.S., Company X is making only 26% or less of the revenues that are being made on performance plastics.

Then how can X ’s share of the world market be 30%?

It can’t be!

If Company X ’s global market share is 30%, but its market share in the U.S. is lower than 30%, then somewhere else, its market share must be higher than 30%. You can think of weighted averages. Company X s global market share is the weighted average of its market shares in all countries. For 30% to be the weighted average of 26% and a bunch of other numbers, at least one of those other numbers must be greater than 30%.

Thus, the statement must be true. The answer is Yes.