Last visit was: 02 Sep 2026, 05:33 It is currently 02 Sep 2026, 05:33
Close
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.

Customized
for You

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History

Track
Your Progress

every week, we’ll send you an estimated GMAT score based on your performance

Practice
Pays

we will pick new questions that match your level based on your Timer History
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Close
Request Expert Reply
Confirm Cancel
User avatar
Bunuel
User avatar
Math Expert
Joined: 02 Sep 2009
Last visit: 02 Sep 2026
Posts: 113,043
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 111,269
Products:
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 113,043
Kudos: 838,571
 [20]
2
Kudos
Add Kudos
18
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
arkaja11
Joined: 22 Nov 2023
Last visit: 22 Aug 2025
Posts: 39
Own Kudos:
68
 [3]
Given Kudos: 78
Status:Living life one day at a time
Location: India
GMAT Focus 1: 695 Q90 V81 DI82
GMAT 1: 710 Q51 V34
GPA: 7.8
WE:Consulting (Pharmaceuticals and Biotech)
Products:
GMAT Focus 1: 695 Q90 V81 DI82
GMAT 1: 710 Q51 V34
Posts: 39
Kudos: 68
 [3]
2
Kudos
Add Kudos
1
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
tgsankar10
Joined: 27 Mar 2024
Last visit: 31 Aug 2026
Posts: 281
Own Kudos:
407
 [3]
Given Kudos: 85
Location: India
Posts: 281
Kudos: 407
 [3]
2
Kudos
Add Kudos
1
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
User avatar
DylanD
Joined: 08 Jan 2025
Last visit: 07 May 2026
Posts: 39
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 178
Location: United States
Posts: 39
Kudos: 20
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
I've attempted max/min ratios of people (1 to 1 to 3 = 5) and of $ received (1 to 1 to 1 = 3 parts $ total), but I've spent far too long & only could guess that (2) would only suffice if there were an equal ratio of people/group.
User avatar
shobhit770
Joined: 15 Apr 2024
Last visit: 23 Aug 2026
Posts: 2
Given Kudos: 20
Posts: 2
Kudos: 0
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
please advise the way to go about this question as i wasnt able to comprehend the problem
User avatar
egmat
User avatar
e-GMAT Representative
Joined: 02 Nov 2011
Last visit: 02 Sep 2026
Posts: 6,287
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 715
GMAT Date: 08-19-2020
Expert
Expert reply
Active GMAT Club Expert! Tag them with @ followed by their username for a faster response.
Posts: 6,287
Kudos: 33,890
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Hi shobhit770,

This question looks scary because of the "rearrangement" wording, but once you translate it into plain terms it's a clean sufficiency check. Let me give you a way in.

First, decode the setup. You have 3 divisions with employee counts a, b, c (each at least 100, adding to 500) and three dollar amounts x, y, z (adding to $8,000,000). "Per-employee funding" is just amount / employees. A division is underfunded if that ratio is 10,000 or less, and overfunded if it's 40,000 or more. The question only asks: how many divisions are overfunded?

Now the key to the wording. "Rearrange so each division receives an amount assigned to another division" means you swap the three dollar amounts onto different divisions. With exactly 3 divisions, the only such swaps are the two cycles (A->B->C->A and its reverse) - nobody can keep their own amount.

How to test each statement: use the worst-case pairing.

Statement (1): "no rearrangement leaves any division underfunded." Underfunding is most likely when the smallest amount lands on the largest division. If even that pairing stays above 10,000 per employee, then no division can be overfunded. Here's why: if some division were overfunded, it would hold at least 40,000 x 100 = $4,000,000, leaving at most $4,000,000 for the other 400+ employees. You could then route a small amount onto a big division and force a ratio of 10,000 or below - i.e., a rearrangement would be underfunded. That contradicts the statement. So statement (1) forces the overfunded count to be 0. Sufficient.

Statement (2): "no rearrangement is overfunded." Here's the trap - this only constrains the two swapped arrangements, not the original. Because every division must give up its own amount, a division that is overfunded in the original setup is never tested by these swaps. So you can build a case with one division overfunded originally while no swap creates an overfunded division. The count could be 0 or it could be 1 - not pinned down. Not sufficient.

The takeaway: "rearrangement" here means a full swap (a derangement), so it never re-tests the original pairing. That single observation is what separates (1) from (2).

Answer: A

shobhit770
please advise the way to go about this question as i wasnt able to comprehend the problem
User avatar
gullyboy09
Joined: 13 Oct 2025
Last visit: 01 Sep 2026
Posts: 297
Own Kudos:
Given Kudos: 71
Products:
Posts: 297
Kudos: 24
Kudos
Add Kudos
Bookmarks
Bookmark this Post
Hi KarishmaB can you help me with this question? What's the meaning of "each division receives an amount that had been assigned to another division"?
Moderators:
Math Expert
113043 posts
DI Forum Moderator
410 posts