That Shakespeare's The Winter's Tale (1610-1611) is modeled after

Question

That Shakespeare's The Winter's Tale (1610-1611) is modeled after Euripides' Alcestis (fifth century B.C.) seems undeniable. However, it is generally accepted that Shakespeare knew little or no Greek, so Euripides' original play would be an unlikely source. Thus, it seems most likely that Shakespeare came to know Euripides' play through a Latin translation.

Which one of the following, if true, LEAST strengthens the argument?

(A) Latin phrases that were widely used in England during Shakespeare's time appear in a number of his plays.

(B) The only English language version of  Alcestis  available in Shakespeare's time differed drastically from the original in ways  The Winter's Tale  does not.

(C) Paul Buchanan's 1539 Latin translation of  Alcestis  was faithful to the original and widely available during the 1600s.

(D) Shakespeare's father's community standing makes it probable that Shakespeare attended grammar school, where Latin would have been a mandatory subject.

(E) There is strong evidence to suggest that Shakespeare relied on Latin translations of Greek plays as sources for some of his other works.

Riyaagoell · Answer

Please post an explanation as to how did we conclude on A instead of B

guddo · Answer

That Shakespeare's  The Winter's Tale  (1610-1611) is modeled after Euripides'  Alcestis  (fifth century B.C.) seems undeniable. However, it is generally accepted that Shakespeare knew little or no Greek, so Euripides' original play would be an unlikely source. Thus, it seems most likely that Shakespeare came to know Euripides' play through a Latin translation.
 
 Which one of the following, if true, LEAST strengthens the argument?

The argument concludes that Shakespeare probably encountered  Alcestis  through a Latin translation. Most choices strengthen this by showing that  Shakespeare knew Latin, Latin translations were available, or alternative sources were unlikely . We need the choice that provides the least support.

(A) Latin phrases that were widely used in England during Shakespeare's time appear in a number of his plays.

Correct.   This gives very little evidence that Shakespeare could read an entire Latin translation. Widely used Latin phrases could have been familiar even to someone without strong knowledge of Latin.

(B) The only English language version of  Alcestis  available in Shakespeare's time differed drastically from the original in ways  The Winter's Tale  does not.

Incorrect. This eliminates an important alternative source. If the available English version differed greatly from the original while Shakespeare's play did not, a Latin translation becomes more likely.

(C) Paul Buchanan's 1539 Latin translation of  Alcestis  was faithful to the original and widely available during the 1600s.

Incorrect. This directly strengthens the argument by showing that an accurate Latin version was readily available to Shakespeare.

(D) Shakespeare's father's community standing makes it probable that Shakespeare attended grammar school, where Latin would have been a mandatory subject.

Incorrect. This supports the idea that Shakespeare knew enough Latin to read a Latin translation.

(E) There is strong evidence to suggest that Shakespeare relied on Latin translations of Greek plays as sources for some of his other works.

Incorrect. This provides strong precedent for Shakespeare using Latin translations of Greek works, making the proposed explanation more plausible.

Answer: (A)

egmat · Answer

Hi Riyaagoell,

The question asks which choice does the  least  to help, and the conclusion is narrow:  Shakespeare came to know Alcestis through a  Latin translation  . A choice strengthens only if it makes that route more likely.

Why B strengthens, so it cannot be the answer.  B says the only English version  "differed drastically from the original in ways The Winter's Tale does not."  That kills the rival source. If the play cannot have come from the English text, and Greek is already ruled out, the Latin route is left standing. Eliminating an alternative  is  a form of strengthening.

Why A is the least.  A contains the word  "Latin,"  so it feels like support. Read what it actually says:  "Latin phrases that were widely used in England... appear in a number of his plays."  That shows he picked up common Latin phrases circulating in England. It does not show he could sit down and read a full Latin translation of a Greek tragedy, and it never connects him to one for Alcestis. True, but it moves nothing.

That is the whole difference: B removes a competing explanation, while A only sounds on-topic because of one word.

Had A said  "Shakespeare could fluently read and translate long Latin texts,"  it would strengthen, because it supplies the reading ability the conclusion needs. As written, restricted to common phrases, it supplies none.

Watch for choices that echo a keyword from the conclusion without moving the logic.

Answer: A

Hellohello007 · Answer

Hi, Can someone please tell why not D, as D suggests, if he probably took Latin classes it means he did not need a translation

Is the argument implying that the play was in Greek and he came to know of it through a trnaslation in Latin (the argument in drawing this conclusion assumes that he knew latin)??

Can someone please elaborate?

guddo · Answer

Yes, that is exactly the point.  The original play was in Greek, while the proposed source was a Latin translation.
 
So (D) strengthens the argument because studying Latin at grammar school makes it more plausible that Shakespeare  could actually read the Latin translation . It does not mean he could read the Greek original.

(A) is weaker because merely using a few common Latin phrases does not show that Shakespeare knew enough Latin to read an entire translated play.

That Shakespeare's The Winter's Tale (1610-1611) is modeled after

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That Shakespeare's The Winter's Tale (1610-1611) is modeled after

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