Another way to approach (B), the 2nd statement.
Given a^4-b^4 = (a^2+b^2)(a^2-b^2)
We know from (B) that a^2+b^2 = (3n+2), then a^2-b^2 = (3n+2-2b^2)
Then a^4-b^4 = (a^2+b^2)(a^2-b^2) = (3n+2)(3n+2-2b^2) = (3n)(3n+2-2b^2) + (2)(3n+2-2b^2)
We can safely ignore the first term, as the factor of 3n will make the first term divisible by 3.
The second term can further be writteen as 6n+4-4b^2, and similarly, the term 6n can be ignored.
Now what we really need to worry about is 4-4b^2, or 4b^2-4, (doesnt really matter). It can be written as
4(b-1)(b+1).
The property of 3 is that among 3 consecutive numbers x, x+1, x+2, there's gotta be 1 number divisible by 3.
Case 1. either (b-1) or (b+1) is divisible by 3, then the answer is obvious.
Case 2. b is divisible by 3. However, can this be the case?
It would mean a^2 has to be 3m+2 for some m, since a^2+b^2 = 3n+2.
If you are not familiar with the property of squares mentioned above by others (which I didn't know), you can deduce from the following:
If a^2 = 3m+2, then a^2-1=3m+1, which means (a+1)(a-1) = 3m+1. However, we know that one of the 3 numbers a, (a+1), and (a-1) is divisible by 3. If (a+1)(a-1)=3m+1 is not divisible by 3, it means that a has to be divisible by 3. This contradicts with a^2 = 3m+2, which is not divisible by 3. Therefore, b is not divisible by 3, and this case is not valid.