Literary historians today have rejected conventional analyses of the d

Question

Literary historians today have rejected conventional analyses of the development of English Renaissance drama. They no longer accept the idea that the sudden achievement of Elizabethan playwrights was a historical anomaly, a sort of magical rediscovery of ancient Greek dramatic form applied to contemporary English subject matter. Instead, most students of the theater now view Elizabethan drama as being organically related to traditional local drama, particularly medieval morality plays.

Which of the following is NOT consistent with the passage above?

(A) England had a dramatic tradition before the Renaissance period. 
(B) Elizabethan drama, once thought to be a sudden blossoming forth of creativity, is now seen as part of a historical continuum. 
(C) Historians'views of the antecedents of English Renaissance drama have changed considerably. 
(D) Current scholarship applies an evolutionary model to English Renaissance drama. 
(E) Although English Renaissance drama treats English subject matter, its source of form and method is classical Greek drama.

BhargavB · Answer

I chose C initially.

Option E states that "its source of form and method is classical Greek drama". But in the argument, it is given "ancient Greek  dramatic form applied to  contemporary English subject matter". Is this the correct explanation for option E?

avikroy · Answer

thoroughly confusing between D and E........The stem suddenly shifts from Literary historians to students of the theatre and from ancient greek to classical greek drama.

NoraUnoSama · Answer

Option A is wrong because it says something which is consistent with the argument. The argument speaks of the development of the English renaissance drama were renaissance is an era. It can be inferred that before the renaissance era, England had dramatic traditions; otherwise the argument may have talked about the development of drama during the renaissance period, and not only about a particular drama style during the renaissance period.

Option E is the right one because it is clearly inconsistent with the argument. The argument says "  They no longer accept the idea  that the sudden achievement of Elizabethan playwrights was a historical anomaly,  a sort of magical rediscovery of ancient Greek dramatic form applied to contemporary Englis h subject matter. Instead, most students of the theater now view Elizabethan drama as being organically related to traditional local drama, particularly medieval morality plays ." But Option E goes directly against this passage of the argument.

VerbalBot · Answer

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Literary historians today have rejected conventional analyses of the d

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Literary historians today have rejected conventional analyses of the d

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