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Sajjad1994
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What if the market share is less than 26% in multiple countries..like say 8% in Country A, 9% Country B, etc. This would add up to the remaining 74% left after deducting U.S.

I imagine 30% here refers to a piece of the global pie (100%). And of that 30% pie, 26% is the U.S. slice.

Is there something wrong with my understanding?
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I have same question as taru23. Can someone help please? Sajjad1994 Bunuel
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I have same question as taru23. Can someone help please? Sajjad1994 Bunuel

1. I did not understand your question please elaborate.

2. The official explanation is posted you can read it for further reference: https://gmatclub.com/forum/the-table-be ... l#p2516659

3. While asking question please mention the statement you are asking for.

Cheers.
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Hii Sajjad1994 My question is same as the person named Taru who asked it in the comments before. Sorry I should have quoted her!!

My question is -
"What if the market share is less than 26% in multiple countries..like say 8% in Country A, 9% Country B, etc. This would add up to the remaining 74% left after deducting U.S.

I imagine 30% here refers to a piece of the global pie (100%). And of that 30% pie, 26% is the U.S. slice.

Is there something wrong with my understanding?"
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NoviceBoy
Hii Sajjad1994 My question is same as the person named Taru who asked it in the comments before. Sorry I should have quoted her!!

My question is -
"What if the market share is less than 26% in multiple countries..like say 8% in Country A, 9% Country B, etc. This would add up to the remaining 74% left after deducting U.S.

I imagine 30% here refers to a piece of the global pie (100%). And of that 30% pie, 26% is the U.S. slice.

Is there something wrong with my understanding?"

Hi NoviceBoy

Maybe this statement is beyond my comprehension, but it is utterly confusing and debatable and can better be rephrased as: "There must be at least one other country in which Company X has a percentage of the performance plastics market apart from the US".

Otherwise your concern is 100% valid. It is not necessary that the company x have a greater percentage of the performance plastics market.
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All Yes.
1. & 4. Let Total Global Market share for Performance Plastic division = $20,000.
Let Total U.S. Market Share for Performance Plastic Division = $10,000.

(The Global market share is always greater than The U.S. Market share. )

Performance Plastic sales of company X in U.S. is (26% OF $10,000) = $2,600 .(This is ranked 1st in the US Market, so no other company can have sales more than this amount in the U.S Market)
Performance Plastic sales of company X in Global market is (30% OF $20,000) = $6,000( This is ranked 1st in the Global Market, so no other company can have sales more than this amount in the Global market).

Now, when we compare the sale of the U.S. and Global market.
Company X has sale of $2,600 in U.S. Market and ranked 1st.
Company X has sale of $6,000 in Global Market and ranked 1st.

So, definitely in some other market (outside the U.S Market) Company X has sales of $6,000 (30%) and ranked 1st. (which is greater than the sales done in the U.S Market $2,600 (26%))

2. When sorting the data from lower to higher, we get the positive corelation in betweeen the U.S. Market Share and Global Market Share.

3. Healthcare & Medical is the division of Company X which is the median of Company X’s five divisions by both U.S. market rank and global market rank.
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I agree with your thinking. I believe that "IT MAY OR MAY NOT BE TRUE" for the third statement, so I would say it can't be proved true based on the information provided by the table. However, if we are given further information about the relative relationship (ratio) of the total US market purchases to the total global purchases (of the same category product), we can draw the inference. You can try to prove this with test cases

taru23
What if the market share is less than 26% in multiple countries..like say 8% in Country A, 9% Country B, etc. This would add up to the remaining 74% left after deducting U.S.

I imagine 30% here refers to a piece of the global pie (100%). And of that 30% pie, 26% is the U.S. slice.

Is there something wrong with my understanding?
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Let’s say the total of Plastic in the US is A -> U.S market share of Company X is 26%A.

Then the total of Plastic of the rest of the world is (1-A). Call the rest of the world market share of Company X is X.

Now we have:

26A + X(1-A) = 30
=> (X - 26) A + X = 30
=> X > 26

=> “There is at least one other country in which Company X has a greater percentage of the performance plastics market, as a percentage of 2011 sales, than it has of the performance plastics market in the U.S” - TRUE
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Let’s say I am dividing my pizza into A1, A2, A3,... part.

For each part, I take 26%.
=> then the total I take is 26% of the pizza

But no, I want to take 30% in total
=> so I have to take out >26% of somewhere..

=> There is at least one other country (pizza part) in which Company X has a greater percentage of the performance plastics market, as a percentage of 2011 sales, than it has of the performance plastics market in the U.S. => TRUEEE
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