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Sajjad1994 nightblade354 AjiteshArun
Dear Experts,
would love to hear your thoughts on Q4. C was not even in my list, moreover what would be a good reason to eliminate B and A?
Thanks in advance
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Sajjad1994 nightblade354 AjiteshArun
Dear Experts,
would love to hear your thoughts on Q4. C was not even in my list, moreover what would be a good reason to eliminate B and A?
Thanks in advance

(A) is wrong because the historical events mentioned in paragraph 2 (Magna Carta, and the 1272 jointure law) only serve to further the claim made earlier on—that women were able to control land. These events are not directly tied to the points made in the final paragraph regarding the kinds of influence that resulted from such land ownership.

(B) is not fir because the information in the second paragraph can’t be said to truly represent a sequence of events. Even though the years 1215 and 1272 are mentioned, we can’t infer that the customs and events described in this paragraph are listed so as to form a sequence that leads to a particular result in the following paragraph. Just because women were able to acquire land doesn’t mean that this must inevitably lead to the use of the wealth conferred by the land as discussed in paragraph 3.
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Explanation

7. The phrase “in England” (lines 30–31) does which one of the following?

Explanation

A question about a prepositional phrase? Sounds crazy, no? But everything has a purpose this test, and for whatever reason it’s the purpose of that wee phrase “in England” that is the topic at hand. It appears in Paragraph 2, which we recall is about how the medieval woman, especially the widow, was able to get her hands on property through the custom of granting her “dower,” equivalent to 1/3 of the deceased husband’s land.

Now: Consider how the sentence in question would read with the phrase “in England” missing: “Called ‘dower,’ this grant had greater legal importance . . .” etc. That meaning is clear: There was one and only one name for the grant, and it’s “dower.” Therefore, the only conceivable reason the author could have for inserting “in England” is if the grant existed in countries other than England, but was called something different there. Without that implication, the insertion of “in England” is superfluous. So (A) is the purpose that the phrase achieves.

(B) at best describes the purpose of the word “dower” (if in fact dower qualifies as a “code of law,” which isn’t at all clear). But what’s it got to do with England?

(C) That the author confines his discussion of dower to England may imply that dower was more important there than elsewhere. But the mere use of the phrase “in England” doesn’t make that implication.

(D)’s comparison of more vs. fewer means of controlling property, in England vs. elsewhere, is not apt, given that the overall context in lines 26-34 has to do with widows’ rights generally. The only comparison made, and it’s an implicit one, is described by correct choice (A).

(E) would probably be O.K. if the text ran “First called ‘dower’ in 1178,” and the question asked for the purpose of the phrase “in 1178.” But as is, (E) is irrelevant.

Answer: A
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