Is f(pq) = f(p) * f(q) for all positive integers values of p and q?

Question

Is  f(pq) = f(p) * f(q)  for all positive integers values of p and q?

(1)  f(p) = \frac{1}{p}

(2)  f(p + q) = f(p) + f(q)

Avinashkr29 · Answer

1) Is sufficient since,

f(p,q)=1/pq and f(p)*f(q)=1/p * 1/q = 1/pq

2) Not sufficient as
f(p,q)=1/p+q is not equal to 1/p +1/q

CrackverbalGMAT · Answer

Hi Avinashkr29. In statement 2, how did you get f(p,q) as 1 /p + q. Isn't this a conclusion from statement 1?

Please correct me if I am wrong.

dimesquared · Answer

Anyone else have any thoughts? I'm struggling to come up with an example that statement 2 breaks for.

TBT · Answer

b. If f(p) = 2p it applies. If f(p) = 2 + p it doesn't. Insufficient.

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Is f(pq) = f(p) * f(q) for all positive integers values of p and q?

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Is f(pq) = f(p) * f(q) for all positive integers values of p and q?

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