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The origins of the English language can be traced back to the Saxon 21 Jan 2022, 20:45
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The origins of the English language can be traced back to the Saxon and other Germanic settlers in Britain beginning in the 5th century CE. Its unusual nature can be attributed to the diverse linguistic origins of the groups that contributed to its development and their role in English society. Although English belongs to the Germanic language family, and its grammatical and syntactical rules reflect this, English vocabulary can be seen to be from multiple origins. In fact, a large part of the vocabulary was not derived from the Germanic languages at all but is rather of Latin origin. This can be explained by the influence on Old English of Old French and Latin during the Norman Invasion in the 11th century. By the time of the Norman Invasion, Old English was already a language, with both its grammar and vocabulary based in the Germanic language family. However, the establishment of a ruling class who spoke a Romance language caused significant changes in the indigenous tongue. It is also interesting to note the correlation between the length of a word and its origin—most of the shorter words in the English language are derived from the Germanic languages, whereas the longer words are from a Latin background. One theory to explain this is that the more elaborate and complex words were primarily used by the elite after the Norman Invasion—who would have favored a Latin-based (or Romance) vocabulary—whereas words with the same meaning in the Old English were used primarily by the lower classes and thus fell into disuse. Modern English words, then, concerning more complex and theoretical, rather than utilitarian, ideas (astronomy, poetry, and epistemology) can generally be found to be of Romance origin, whereas more mundane words, such as pronouns and auxiliary verbs, can be traced to back to a Germanic origin. there is a distinct.

Which of the following best describes the relationship between the highlighted phrases?

A The argument and its counterargument
B Two examples of the scope of the passage
C The topic and scope of the passage
D The scope of the passage and an example
E The topic of the passage and an example


Based on the passage, of what origin would we expect the word “they” to be?

I Germanic
II Romance
III Norse

A I only
B I and III only
C II and III only
D I, II, III
E I and II only


Based on the passage, what is a likely reason why English has not been reclassified as a Romance language?

A It developed as a Germanic language in its first incarnation, Old English.
B The core of the language, its grammar and syntax, is still Germanic.
C A larger portion of the English vocabulary is Germanic rather than Romance.
D The Normans felt an affinity for the local tongue, which was Germanic.
E Neither linguistic heritage has a claim to preeminence.


Which of the following can we infer from the passage?

I Searching for meaning based on the Latin root of a word is less likely to be useful in shorter words.
II The language spoken by the Saxon and Germanic settlers entirely supplanted the indigenous tongue of 5th-century Britain.
III The discussion of complex ideas during the Norman era in England was primarily the domain of the ruling class.

A I and II only
B II and III only
C I only
D I and III only
E III only


ShowHide Answer Question #1
Official Answer
D
ShowHide Answer Question #2
Official Answer
A
ShowHide Answer Question #3
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B
ShowHide Answer Question #4
Official Answer
A
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The origins of the English language can be traced back to the Saxon 04 Jul 2023, 23:34
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Sajjad1994
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If anyone can help me in question 4

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Explanation

4. Which of the following can we infer from the passage?

Explanation

I. Searching for meaning based on the Latin root of a word is less likely to be useful in shorter words.
The passage mentions that a correlation exists between the length of a word and its origin, with shorter words being derived from the Germanic languages and longer words having a Latin background. This suggests that searching for meaning based on the Latin root of a word may be less useful in shorter words. Therefore, Inference I can be inferred from the passage.

II. The language spoken by the Saxon and Germanic settlers entirely supplanted the indigenous tongue of 5th-century Britain.
The passage states that the English language's origins can be traced back to the Saxon and other Germanic settlers who arrived in Britain in the 5th century. It also mentions that the diverse linguistic origins of the groups contributed to the development of the English language. While it doesn't explicitly mention that the language spoken by the settlers entirely replaced the indigenous tongue, the information provided implies that the influence of the Saxon and Germanic settlers had a significant impact on the development of the English language. Therefore, it can be inferred that the language spoken by the settlers had a substantial role in supplanting the indigenous tongue of 5th-century Britain.

I and II can be inferred:

Answer: A
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Wouldn't statement II means entirely while the explanation you provide explains that there was a significant effect? I believe there is a difference between entirely and significant effect.
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The origins of the English language can be traced back to the Saxon 22 Jan 2022, 12:14
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It took me 7 minutes, 35 seconds to answer all the 4 questions but I do not get how option A is the right choice for question 4.

Shouldn't it be E?
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The origins of the English language can be traced back to the Saxon 23 Jan 2022, 01:48
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OE

Quote:
As always, you must be careful with what you infer from a passage. Looking at answer (A), you would need to find something in the text that would suggest that the shorter the word, the less likely it may be derived from Latin—which you can find in the final two sentences. There is no mention of the indigenous language before the arrival of the Germanic peoples, so you can dismiss (B). (C) might seem tempting because the author notes that the words used for complex ideas today are primarily those used by the ruling class. However, while it might seem more likely to be the habit of those with leisure time and education, the passage does not specify anything that would allow us to draw this conclusion, and (C) must be rejected.
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The origins of the English language can be traced back to the Saxon 18 Aug 2022, 23:58
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OE

Quote:
As always, you must be careful with what you infer from a passage. Looking at answer (A), you would need to find something in the text that would suggest that the shorter the word, the less likely it may be derived from Latin—which you can find in the final two sentences. There is no mention of the indigenous language before the arrival of the Germanic peoples, so you can dismiss (B). (C) might seem tempting because the author notes that the words used for complex ideas today are primarily those used by the ruling class. However, while it might seem more likely to be the habit of those with leisure time and education, the passage does not specify anything that would allow us to draw this conclusion, and (C) must be rejected.
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Shouldn't the answer be choice C (A only) in that case?
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The origins of the English language can be traced back to the Saxon 18 Aug 2022, 23:59
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For question 4, shouldn't the answer choice be C?
Could someone please post the OA for all questions?
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The origins of the English language can be traced back to the Saxon 23 Jun 2023, 06:04
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If anyone can help me in question 4

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The origins of the English language can be traced back to the Saxon 03 Jul 2023, 12:20
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jaindevaditya
If anyone can help me in question 4

Posted from my mobile device
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Explanation

4. Which of the following can we infer from the passage?

Explanation

I. Searching for meaning based on the Latin root of a word is less likely to be useful in shorter words.
The passage mentions that a correlation exists between the length of a word and its origin, with shorter words being derived from the Germanic languages and longer words having a Latin background. This suggests that searching for meaning based on the Latin root of a word may be less useful in shorter words. Therefore, Inference I can be inferred from the passage.

II. The language spoken by the Saxon and Germanic settlers entirely supplanted the indigenous tongue of 5th-century Britain.
The passage states that the English language's origins can be traced back to the Saxon and other Germanic settlers who arrived in Britain in the 5th century. It also mentions that the diverse linguistic origins of the groups contributed to the development of the English language. While it doesn't explicitly mention that the language spoken by the settlers entirely replaced the indigenous tongue, the information provided implies that the influence of the Saxon and Germanic settlers had a significant impact on the development of the English language. Therefore, it can be inferred that the language spoken by the settlers had a substantial role in supplanting the indigenous tongue of 5th-century Britain.

I and II can be inferred:

Answer: A
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The origins of the English language can be traced back to the Saxon 26 Jul 2024, 15:07
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SejalT

Sajjad1994

jaindevaditya
If anyone can help me in question 4

Posted from my mobile device
Explanation

4. Which of the following can we infer from the passage?

Explanation

I. Searching for meaning based on the Latin root of a word is less likely to be useful in shorter words.
The passage mentions that a correlation exists between the length of a word and its origin, with shorter words being derived from the Germanic languages and longer words having a Latin background. This suggests that searching for meaning based on the Latin root of a word may be less useful in shorter words. Therefore, Inference I can be inferred from the passage.

II. The language spoken by the Saxon and Germanic settlers entirely supplanted the indigenous tongue of 5th-century Britain.
The passage states that the English language's origins can be traced back to the Saxon and other Germanic settlers who arrived in Britain in the 5th century. It also mentions that the diverse linguistic origins of the groups contributed to the development of the English language. While it doesn't explicitly mention that the language spoken by the settlers entirely replaced the indigenous tongue, the information provided implies that the influence of the Saxon and Germanic settlers had a significant impact on the development of the English language. Therefore, it can be inferred that the language spoken by the settlers had a substantial role in supplanting the indigenous tongue of 5th-century Britain.

I and II can be inferred:

Answer: A


Wouldn't statement II means entirely while the explanation you provide explains that there was a significant effect? I believe there is a difference between entirely and significant effect.
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­can anyone help with this explainaton
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The origins of the English language can be traced back to the Saxon 28 Jul 2024, 01:24
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SejalT

Sajjad1994

jaindevaditya
If anyone can help me in question 4

Posted from my mobile device
Explanation

4. Which of the following can we infer from the passage?

Explanation

I. Searching for meaning based on the Latin root of a word is less likely to be useful in shorter words.
The passage mentions that a correlation exists between the length of a word and its origin, with shorter words being derived from the Germanic languages and longer words having a Latin background. This suggests that searching for meaning based on the Latin root of a word may be less useful in shorter words. Therefore, Inference I can be inferred from the passage.

II. The language spoken by the Saxon and Germanic settlers entirely supplanted the indigenous tongue of 5th-century Britain.
The passage states that the English language's origins can be traced back to the Saxon and other Germanic settlers who arrived in Britain in the 5th century. It also mentions that the diverse linguistic origins of the groups contributed to the development of the English language. While it doesn't explicitly mention that the language spoken by the settlers entirely replaced the indigenous tongue, the information provided implies that the influence of the Saxon and Germanic settlers had a significant impact on the development of the English language. Therefore, it can be inferred that the language spoken by the settlers had a substantial role in supplanting the indigenous tongue of 5th-century Britain.

I and II can be inferred:

Answer: A


Wouldn't statement II means entirely while the explanation you provide explains that there was a significant effect? I believe there is a difference between entirely and significant effect.
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­I would like to second this. Entirely means it was replaced wholly which is not mentioned in the passage and hence i rejected this choice.
Would like more insights on why option 2 in this question is correct
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The origins of the English language can be traced back to the Saxon 06 Oct 2024, 11:49
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can someone explain question 1
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The origins of the English language can be traced back to the Saxon 28 Jun 2025, 20:02
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Kindly provide explanation for Q1. Thanks!
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The origins of the English language can be traced back to the Saxon 30 Jun 2025, 00:06
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It took me 5.50 mins to solve the questions. I too don't agree with the 4th question's answer. Use of the word " Entirely" cannot be inferred from the passage. Hence (II) is incorrect according to me.
SJ5
It took me 7 minutes, 35 seconds to answer all the 4 questions but I do not get how option A is the right choice for question 4.

Shouldn't it be E?
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The origins of the English language can be traced back to the Saxon Updated on: 30 Jun 2025, 11:38
Originally posted by Sajjad1994 on 30 Jun 2025, 11:36.
Last edited by Sajjad1994 on 30 Jun 2025, 11:38, edited 1 time in total.
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OE

1. Which of the following best describes the relationship between the highlighted phrases?

Explanation

The phrase "Its unusual nature can be attributed to the diverse linguistic origins of the groups that contributed to its development and their role in English society" introduces the topic of the passage, discussing the unique characteristics of the English language resulting from its diverse linguistic origins.

The phrase "It is also interesting to note the correlation between the length of a word and its origin" provides an example within the passage. It highlights a specific aspect related to the linguistic origins of English, specifically the correlation between word length and their respective origins.

Option (A) The argument and its counterargument is incorrect because the passage does not present an argument and counterargument structure. It provides information about the origins and characteristics of the English language without opposing viewpoints.

Option (B) Two examples of the scope of the passage is incorrect because the second phrase does not represent an example of the passage's scope. It introduces a specific observation but does not exemplify the overall scope of the passage.

Option (C) The topic and scope of the passage is incorrect because the second phrase does not provide an example of the passage's scope. While it introduces a specific aspect related to the topic, it does not exemplify the overall scope of the passage.

Option (E) The topic of the passage and an example is incorrect because it suggests that the second phrase provides an example of the topic itself. However, the second phrase provides an example related to the scope of the passage rather than the topic itself.

Therefore, the correct answer is (D) The scope of the passage and an example, as the second phrase offers a specific example within the broader scope of the passage's discussion on the linguistic origins of the English language.

Answer: D
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The origins of the English language can be traced back to the Saxon 01 Jul 2025, 06:24
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SejalT
Sajjad1994
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If anyone can help me in question 4

Posted from my mobile device

Explanation

4. Which of the following can we infer from the passage?

Explanation

I. Searching for meaning based on the Latin root of a word is less likely to be useful in shorter words.
The passage mentions that a correlation exists between the length of a word and its origin, with shorter words being derived from the Germanic languages and longer words having a Latin background. This suggests that searching for meaning based on the Latin root of a word may be less useful in shorter words. Therefore, Inference I can be inferred from the passage.

II. The language spoken by the Saxon and Germanic settlers entirely supplanted the indigenous tongue of 5th-century Britain.
The passage states that the English language's origins can be traced back to the Saxon and other Germanic settlers who arrived in Britain in the 5th century. It also mentions that the diverse linguistic origins of the groups contributed to the development of the English language. While it doesn't explicitly mention that the language spoken by the settlers entirely replaced the indigenous tongue, the information provided implies that the influence of the Saxon and Germanic settlers had a significant impact on the development of the English language. Therefore, it can be inferred that the language spoken by the settlers had a substantial role in supplanting the indigenous tongue of 5th-century Britain.

I and II can be inferred:

Answer: A



Wouldn't statement II means entirely while the explanation you provide explains that there was a significant effect? I believe there is a difference between entirely and significant effect.
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can you please explain why III is incorrect ? thanks in advance.
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