dehumaniser
going by the same notion, all options can be explained in similar fashion. I am absolutely lost on this one.
Hi guys, pretty new to the forum here, but I'll give this one a shot. This was my approach:
I found it easier to flip the question around so that it reads "The passage implies that which of the following
is a valid reason for a college to switch to a test-optional policy?"
Then flip each answer accordingly:
A - "The college
does believe in the predictive power of standardized tests" - If the college believes in the predictive power, then this is a reason not to switch to test-optional.
B - "Standardized tests are
not necessary for first-year course placement" - If standardized tests don't help with course placement, then this is a reason to switch to test-optional.
C - "The college
doesn't have an open access policy in admissions decisions" - Paragraph 1 states that open access is a reason to switch to test-optional. Therefore, if the college doesn't have an open access policy, then it would not switch to test-optional.
D - "SAT scores
are helpful for academic advisors that help students choose first-year courses" - If SAT scores are helpful for advisors, then the college should not switch to test-optional.
E - "The college
doesn't have a broad definition of student success including degree attainment and post-college employment" - Paragraph 2 states that the SAT/ACT are meant to predict first-year and four-year grades, not "overall degree attainment, a range of GPAs, post-college employment, or progression to graduate school." Therefore, if a college has a narrow definition of success (i.e. first-year and four-year grades), then the college should not switch to test-optional.
Answer B is the only option that correctly answers the newly worded question. Hope this helps!