Events & Promotions
|
|
GMAT Club Daily Prep
Thank you for using the timer - this advanced tool can estimate your performance and suggest more practice questions. We have subscribed you to Daily Prep Questions via email.
Customized
for You
Track
Your Progress
Practice
Pays
Not interested in getting valuable practice questions and articles delivered to your email? No problem, unsubscribe here.
Apr 2711:00 AM EDT
-12:00 PM EDT
Prefer video-based learning? The Target Test Prep OnDemand course is a one-of-a-kind video masterclass featuring 400 hours of lecture-style teaching by Scott Woodbury-Stewart, founder of Target Test Prep and one of the most accomplished GMAT instructors
Apr 2610:00 AM EDT
-11:00 AM EDT
The Target Test Prep course represents a quantum leap forward in GMAT preparation, a radical reinterpretation of the way that students should study. Try before you buy with a 5-day, full-access trial of the course for FREE!
Apr 2808:00 AM PDT
-11:00 AM PDT
Whether you are just beginning your MBA journey or fine-tuning your path to a 700+ score, GMAT Day is designed to give you a competitive edge.
02 Jul 2006, 17:58
Kudos
Bookmarks
This is an old Venn Diagram question and I've read through some previous posts about how to solve it but some problems prop up.
Original Question:
In an examination, 35% candidates failed in one subject and 42% failed in another subject while 15% failed in both the subjects. If 2500 candidates appeared in the examination, how many passed in either subject but not in both?
a) 325
b) 1075
c) 1175
d) 2125
e) 2250
When viewing the previous post replies:
https://www.gmatclub.com/phpbb/viewtopic.php?t=14890
I wonder: the question asks for those that "pass either subject" not those that "fail either subject." So then doesn't 47% represent those that have failed either but not both?
Original Question:
In an examination, 35% candidates failed in one subject and 42% failed in another subject while 15% failed in both the subjects. If 2500 candidates appeared in the examination, how many passed in either subject but not in both?
a) 325
b) 1075
c) 1175
d) 2125
e) 2250
When viewing the previous post replies:
https://www.gmatclub.com/phpbb/viewtopic.php?t=14890
I wonder: the question asks for those that "pass either subject" not those that "fail either subject." So then doesn't 47% represent those that have failed either but not both?
Archived Topic
Hi there,
This topic has been closed and archived due to inactivity or violation of community quality standards. No more replies are possible here.
Where to now? Join ongoing discussions on thousands of quality questions in our Quantitative Questions Forum
Still interested in this question? Check out the "Best Topics" block below for a better discussion on this exact question, as well as several more related questions.
Thank you for understanding, and happy exploring!
02 Jul 2006, 21:32
Kudos
Bookmarks
Failed in A = 35
Failed in B = 42
Failed in both = 15
Failed in only A but not in other = 35-15 = 20 (i.e Passed in B but failed in A)
Failed in only B but not in other = 42-15 = 27 (i.e Passed in A but failed in B)
Total that failed in either but not in both (i.e Passed in one but failed in other) = 20 + 27 = 47
So total number = (47/100) *2500 = 1175
Failed in B = 42
Failed in both = 15
Failed in only A but not in other = 35-15 = 20 (i.e Passed in B but failed in A)
Failed in only B but not in other = 42-15 = 27 (i.e Passed in A but failed in B)
Total that failed in either but not in both (i.e Passed in one but failed in other) = 20 + 27 = 47
So total number = (47/100) *2500 = 1175
