henryford
Hi all
"joe will have had three children after this baby is born "
Why can't we write the above sentence like this :
" joe will have three children after this baby is born "
Even " will have " explaining the future in the sentence!!
Please explain what's the difference of using "have had "and "have " .
Can we use ""had "" instead of using "have had". ??
One reason this example is especially confusing is that we're using both the ordinary verb "have" (as in, "I have three children") and the helper verb "have" (as in, "I have eaten breakfast.") When you try to put the verb "have" into one of the perfect tenses, you can get weird sentences like this one:
"Last night, she told me that she
had had a bad day."
"Have" is also a weird verb, because you can use it in two different ways in this context. If you say "Linda has a child," you would mean that Linda is a parent. But if you say "Linda is having a child," you mean that she's actually giving birth right now (or in the immediate future.) In your first example, you're saying that Joe's partner will have given birth to three children. In your second example, you're saying that Joe will be a parent of three children.
Long story short, this example seems weird just because English is a weird language. If you used any other example aside from having a child, it would be easier to understand the grammar! For instance, try the verb "read":
Joe will have read three books by the time his vacation ends.
Joe will read three books by the time his vacation ends.
They basically mean the same thing, and they're both correct. On the GMAT, as long as the sentences don't break any grammar rules, you don't need to worry about the tiny details of what minor changes in verb tense mean. If there's a meaning difference here, it's very subtle.