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A) The rise of China to superpower status has filled the void created in Central Asia by the demise of the Soviet Union, until it collapsed it was
too many "it" here is causing pronoun ambiguity. Even if we know to what "it" refers from logic or historical knowledge it still causes ambiguity. Also, "until it collapsed it was..." must be separated with a semicolon from the first sentence. In addition there lacks a comma between "until it collapse" (a dependent clause with a subordinate conjunction) + "it was..." ındependent clause)

B) China’s raising to superpower status has filled the void created in Central Asia by the demise of the Soviet Union, which until its collapse was
"raising" sounds like somebody took China's hand and raised it/put it to superpower status "rise" conveys the logical meaning

C) China’s rise to superpower status had filled the void created in Central Asia by the demise of the Soviet Union, which until its collapse was
I don't see any particular reason to use past perfect "had filled".

D) The rise of China to superpower status has filled the void created in Central Asia by the demise of the Soviet Union, which until it collapsed was
Correct
TBH ı didn't like the last part "which until it collapsed was"

E) The raising of China to superpower status has filled the void created in Central Asia by the demise of the Soviet Union, which until its collapse was
"raising" sounds like somebody took China's hand and raised it/put it to superpower status "rise" conveys the logical meaning
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This is a rather confusing question for me. Because, I’m adamant that ‘until it’s collapse..’ is the right phrase to convey the intended meaning. But, the phrase is not preceded by agreeable sentence construction. In ‘until it’s collapse..’ the collapse must act as a noun and it does, whereas if we use collapsed then the meaning does take a weird turn. I might be wrong. And might be missing something.

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If the tense error is fixed in sentence C, would it be correct? I am particularly not happy with the last phrase - "which until it collapsed was" in D and feel that it should have been "which until its collapse was".
However, I am also confused here because for the pronoun "it" there is an antecedent "Soviet Union" but that is probably not the case for possessive pronouns "its". Can someone help clarify?
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A) The rise of China to superpower status has filled the void created in Central Asia by the demise of the Soviet Union, until it collapsed it was Incorrect

B) China’s raising to superpower status has filled the void created in Central Asia by the demise of the Soviet Union, which until its collapse was Incorrect

Soviet Union collapse in past, collapsed is better; 'The rise of China to superpower' sounds better than 'China’s raising to superpower'

C) China’s rise to superpower status had filled the void created in Central Asia by the demise of the Soviet Union, which until its collapse was Incorrect

past form is wrong

D) The rise of China to superpower status has filled the void created in Central Asia by the demise of the Soviet Union, which until it collapsed was Correct

seems good

E) The raising of China to superpower status has filled the void created in Central Asia by the demise of the Soviet Union, which until its collapse was Incorrect

The correct idiomatic phrase is "rise" instead of "raising". Strike out B and E.

Among the rest of the options,
A lacks a correct modifier noun. We need "which" here to refer back to the Soviet Union.
C is incorrect because China's rise to superpower status came after the demise of the soviet union. Hence, the use of the past perfect tense here is incorrect.
Thus, D is the correct answer.
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I believe that the preference sequence V-A-N is in play here. Because we need to rule out Noun in favor of verb we will left with A and D. D is better.
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I believe that the preference sequence V-A-N is in play here. Because we need to rule out Noun in favor of verb we will left with A and D. D is better.

What is V-A-N preference sequence, please explain.
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