In the United States, about $5,200 per person per year is spent on hea

Question

In the United States, about $5,200 per person per year is spent on health care, while in Britain the amount is about half that. A recent study indicated that middle-aged white Americans have a significantly higher rate of diabetes and heart disease than do middle-aged white Britons. Even after eliminating from the study the lifestyle differences of diet, exercise, smoking, and drinking, the data showed that the Americans have poorer health than their British counterparts.

The statements above, if true, best support which of the following assertions?

(A) Health care spending in the United States should be reduced by 50%.

(B) More expensive health care causes a higher incidence of certain diseases.

(C) The money spent on health care in the United States is not being used effectively.

(D) The average health care spending for middle-aged white Americans is probably less than the average health care spending for Americans in general.

(E) Something other than diet, exercise, smoking, and drinking must account for the difference in health for the two groups in the study.

parker · Accepted Answer

For this type of inference/draw a conclusion question (and when you see the phrase "best supports which of the following" it generally means you are dealing with that kind of question)-- you always want to stay *as close to the specific wording of the argument as possible.* One of GMAC's favorite tricks is coming up with conclusions that most reasonable people would draw but are not necessarily true given the exact wording of the argument. It's often the teeny tiny words, which casual/speedy readers gloss over, that are the key to knowing in black/white terms whether an answer choice is wrong.

These answers are riddled with classic distortions of the seemingly reasonable type. Choices A and B contain common "red flag" words-- whenever you see these words, perk up and pay extra attention.

(A)  "should be "-- if you are inferring that something SHOULD BE done--a recommendation-- make sure that the argument itself has that thrust. Here the entire argument is a list of facts and there is no recommendation made.

(B)  "causes"  -- causality is always something to be suspicious of, and even more so when there is only correlational evidence. Remember what your high school science teacher said: "Correlation does not imply causation." Here there is only correlational information.

Choice (C) is something that a reasonable person might think in the non-GMAT world. In the US right now, this is a huge argument being made-- "Look at the rest of the world! Why are we spending more but seeing an increasingly less healthy population?" BUT the very specific wording of this conclusion sets the argument scope around the EFFECTIVENESS of spending...there is nothing mentioned in the argument about effectiveness. Also, I've found in the past that it's often useful to be  suspicious  of answers that are in the popular consciousness in a large way-- people are attracted to the familiar, and the test writers know this.

Choice (D) uses another familiar trick-- take  words from the argument  and  jumble them around  a little. The comparison in the statement is between middle-aged white Americans and middle-aged white Britons-- the comparison in (D) is between two different types of Americans.

Choice (E), as Dawgie states above, says almost exactly the same thing as the last sentence in the stimulus. It might even seem too suspiciously obvious for some test-takers. But the correct answer for this type of question is the one that requires the  smallest possible jump in logic,  and (E) does this.

The more you do these, the more quickly you'll be able to spot these tiny words and the traps laid out for you. I'm guessing that many of the posters above, after reading the argument, were able to POE through the answer choices in less than 30 seconds. If it takes you longer right now-- don't lose heart-- keep practicing identifying those little words and your speed will pick up as your pattern recognition skills refine.

Bunuel · Answer

OFFICIAL EXPLANATION

To make a valid assertion from the information in the argument, we can only rely on the facts that we are given: 
 1) A study found that middle-aged white Americans are sicker than middle-aged white Britons;
2) the researchers eliminated the lifestyle differences of diet, exercise, smoking, and drinking as causes of the health difference;
3) average health care spending per person is higher in the United States than in Britain.  
If any additional information is needed in order to support an assertion, then it is not a valid conclusion.

Be careful to avoid making unintentional assumptions! The health care costs given in the argument are the average costs per person per year in each nation, yet the study only looked at the health of middle-aged white people. It is unclear exactly what amount of money is spent on health care for the age group and race studied. For example, the average health care spending in the United States may include dramatically higher costs for care of premature infants, so it is possible that health care expenditures for the middle-aged white Americans in the study are actually the same as, or even less than, expenditures for their British counterparts.

(A) Reducing health care spending in the United States by 50% would equalize the amount of money spent on health care in the United States and Britain. There is an assumption made that there is some reason to do so, perhaps in the hopes that American health will consequently improve to the level of British health, or perhaps simply to save money. The facts given in the argument are not sufficient to support this assertion.

(B) Although the recent study indicated that the middle-aged white Americans have poorer health than their British counterparts despite apparently more expensive health care, there is no evidence that the cost of the health care is a cause of health or sickness for either group.

(C) It is possible that health care in the United States costs more because the money is being used ineffectively. This assertion is one potential explanation for the poorer health of the Americans in the study, despite apparently higher spending on health care. However, more information is needed to conclusively make this assertion, such as proving that money is currently being wasted, and on what. Additionally, it is unclear exactly how much money is spent on health care for the age group and race studied, so the poorer health of the American patients does not necessarily tell us anything about the effectiveness of the money spent on them.

(D) As mentioned previously, the health care costs given in the argument are the average per person per year in each nation, yet the study only looked at the health of middle-aged white people. It is unclear exactly what amount of money is spent on health care for the age group and race studied. While it is reasonable to wonder whether the average health care spending for middle-aged white Americans is less than the average health care spending for Americans in general, we don’t have enough information to conclude that this is the case.

(E) CORRECT.  The study revealed some differences in the health of middle-aged white Americans and middle-aged white Britons. The study did not indicate the reason for the difference. However, the researchers did eliminate the lifestyle differences of diet, exercise, smoking, and drinking as causes of the health difference. Thus, it can be conclusively asserted that something else (other than diet, exercise, smoking and drinking) must account for the difference in health for the two groups in the study.

KarishmaB · Answer

In US about $5,200 per person per year is spent on health care, while in Britain the amount is about half that. 
Middle-aged white Americans have a significantly higher rate of diabetes and heart disease than do middle-aged white Britons. 
Even after eliminating from the study the lifestyle differences of diet, exercise, smoking, and drinking, the data showed that  the Americans have poorer health than their British counterparts.

So the argument is saying that the Americans have poorer health than Britons even after adjusting for a number of factors. So there must be some other factor (e.g. genetics) responsible for poorer health of Americans! This can be concluded from the argument. It's just another way of saying what the argument is saying. Hence (E) is correct.

A) Health care spending in the United States should be reduced by 50%.

The argument says that Americans have poorer health and hence the extra spending. It is not saying that Americans are wasting money in healthcare.

B) More expensive health care causes a higher incidence of certain diseases.

The argument does not imply that expensive health care is the reason for higher incidence of certain diseases.

C) The money spent on health care in the United States is not being used effectively.

The argument says that Americans have poorer health and hence the extra spending. It is not saying that Americans are not using money effectively in healthcare.

D) The average health care spending for middle-aged white Americans is probably less than the average health care spending for Americans in general.

No comparison given in the argument. Irrelevant.

Answer (E)

*Edited

sayan640 · Answer

I think it should be "responsible for poorer health of Americans" ...Is it a typo ?

KarishmaB · Answer

Ah yes, "of Americans"!

VerbalBot · Answer

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