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Can someone explain the difference between B and D ?
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Veritas Official OE

The correct answer choice begins with a phrase that looks out of scope – why should it matter that the store’s clientele has become more affluent? We’re talking about shoplifting, not about the socioeconomic status of the surrounding community. But wait – that lead-in gets to the point after the comma: the affluent clientele have led the store to stock higher-priced items, meaning that while the number of thefts has gone down the dollar value of those thefts has still risen. That directly weakens the conclusion that the store is profiting from the decrease in thefts.
The correct answer is (D).
So much like the 911 dispatcher this week could have written off Mr. Ramsey’s call as “why do I care about McDonald’s… click,” the patience to let the answer choice finish even if it takes its sweet time getting there will help you make productive decisions on test day. As you learn to Think Like the Testmaker to better avoid Critical Reasoning traps and pitfalls, you may want to think like Charles Ramsey.
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Asset protection manager: This year, for the fifth consecutive fiscal year, we’ve managed to reduce the number of in-store thefts by more than 20% of the previous year’s figure, evidence that our store continues to profit from our vigilance against shoplifting

APM claims that vigilance against shoplifting has helped in making profits.
Now,Based on Pre-thinking: APM nowhere claims that vigilance against shoplifting have completely stopped shoplifting. Now what if the items being shoplifted are costlier. In that case APM's claim would be weakened.
This is exactly what choice D offers.
Hence D
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I chose B instead of D. Can the experts take a look at my logic?

The whole conclusion is stating that the increased vigilance was a net "profit" or net gain vs. it was not a net "profit" or a net gain.

The answer choice of D states that the store's clientele has become more affluent. We also know that in-store thefts have gone down by 20%. Then logically, isn't it possible that the increased vigilance has decreased the thefts that would have been more "pricy"? In the counterfactual scenario, if there was no increased vigilance and the store's clientele is more affluent, each theft is more significant. It's fair to assume that the more pricy thefts would not have gone down as much or if at all without the increased vigilance. Thus, it is still a net gain that increased vigilance lowered theft by 20% even though the store's clientele has become more affluent vs the counterfactual in which there is no increase vigilance, so no lower theft and higher losses in terms of thefts from the more affluent store's clientele.

However in B, we can weaken the argument by stating that the thefts have not necessarily decreased from the increased vigilance but instead from the decrease in sales. Less sales could mean less people are shopping at the store. Hence, less opportunities for thefts.

I thought of this question as a 700 level question instead of a 600-700 level, but still I think the question is flawed.
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