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This question was fairly easy as we just need to understand the rules why the 'editing' would happen. And (D) directly follows the statements given in the paragraph.



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Here is what the style manual is saying --

If archaic spellings & punctuation in direct quotations from older works OCCUR INFREQUENTLY AND DO NOT INTERFERE WITH COMPREHENSION --> Preserved

If they OCCUR FREQUENTLY --> May be Modernized with an explanatory note (If similar modernizing has been done in MORE THAN ONE QUOTATION --> Insert a general statement in the preface).


On the other hand,

Obvious typographical errors in quotations from modern works --> Corrected without explanation

let us take a look at the answer options --

Option A - Incorrect

Not necessarily. If the quotation is from a modern work and is an obvious typo, then no such explanation is needed.

Option B - Incorrect

We cannot infer this. We can only infer about "obvious typographical errors in quotations from modern works". Not about archaic spellings in them.

Option C - Incorrect

this option says this --
If it interferes with comprehension --> Modernize an archaic spelling of a word that is quoted from an older work (this is actually an incorrect negation of condition #1)

Furthermore, the argument talks about "direct quotes". this option does not.

Option D - Correct answer

This can be derived from condition #2. "may modernize" broadens the scope (condition #2 mentions what happens when they occur frequently. It does not talk about what happens when they also interfere with reader comprehension. probably the editor will modernize the punctuation. "may modernize" captures all possibilities).

Option E - Incorrect

Not true. This will be true if modernization is done more than once.
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