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Bunuel
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I was unable to eliminate between B and D. How can we say that D is wrong? If they are not representative of migraine sufferers in general how can we justify their hypothesis that what they are saying (based on the study) is valid for people suffering from migraines in general?

B hits the mark but I wanna know how I can eliminate choices like D in the exam cause D is also very convincing. If you have an inaccurate representation, your hypoethesis is limited to those set of people only and cannot be generally claimed.
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D doesn't matter because the argument only claims that anxiety is one of the causes of migraines. It doesn't say it's the only cause, or even a major cause. So all we need to know is whether anxiety led to the later symptoms in people with this particular syndrome, not whether other cases of migraines were also caused by anxiety.
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I was unable to eliminate between B and D. How can we say that D is wrong? If they are not representative of migraine sufferers in general how can we justify their hypothesis that what they are saying (based on the study) is valid for people suffering from migraines in general?

B hits the mark but I wanna know how I can eliminate choices like D in the exam cause D is also very convincing. If you have an inaccurate representation, your hypoethesis is limited to those set of people only and cannot be generally claimed.
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“The syndrome” refers to the complex syndrome mentioned earlier. The syndrome = a set of three symptoms:
1)Excessive anxiety in early childhood
2)Migraine headaches in adolescence
3)Recurring depression around age 20
So, the “syndrome” is not migraine alone. It is the entire pattern across time. Now rewrite the argument in plain English:
Researchers studied adults with migraines. Many of them show a consistent pattern:
They were very anxious as children
Later, they developed migraines
Later still, they developed depression
Because anxiety always comes first in this pattern, childhood anxiety must be a cause of migraines and depression later in life.
That’s the argument.
Where is the logical leap?
The author goes from:
“Anxiety always occurs before the other symptoms” to “Therefore, anxiety causes the other symptoms”
⚠️ That is a classic GMAT causal error.
Temporal order ≠ causation.
Just because A comes before B and C does not mean:
A causes B
A causes C

What alternative explanation destroys the argument?

Here’s the killer alternative:

All three symptoms could be caused by a single underlying factor.
For example:
genetic predisposition
early neurological development
childhood trauma
hormonal or biochemical factors

That underlying cause could:
produce childhood anxiety
later produce migraines
later produce depression
In that case: anxiety is a symptom, not a cause the conclusion collapses

✅ (B) It fails to rule out the possibility that all of the characteristic symptoms of the syndrome have a common cause.

This is correct.
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