“The syndrome” refers to the complex syndrome mentioned earlier. The syndrome = a set of three symptoms:
1)Excessive anxiety in early childhood
2)Migraine headaches in adolescence
3)Recurring depression around age 20
So, the “syndrome” is not migraine alone. It is the entire pattern across time. Now rewrite the argument in plain English:
Researchers studied adults with migraines. Many of them show a consistent pattern:
They were very anxious as children
Later, they developed migraines
Later still, they developed depression
Because anxiety always comes first in this pattern, childhood anxiety must be a cause of migraines and depression later in life.
That’s the argument.
Where is the logical leap?
The author goes from:
“Anxiety always occurs before the other symptoms” to “Therefore, anxiety causes the other symptoms”
⚠️ That is a classic GMAT causal error.
Temporal order ≠ causation.
Just because A comes before B and C does not mean:
A causes B
A causes C
What alternative explanation destroys the argument?
Here’s the killer alternative:
All three symptoms could be caused by a single underlying factor.
For example:
genetic predisposition
early neurological development
childhood trauma
hormonal or biochemical factors
That underlying cause could:
produce childhood anxiety
later produce migraines
later produce depression
In that case: anxiety is a symptom, not a cause the conclusion collapses
✅ (B) It fails to rule out the possibility that all of the characteristic symptoms of the syndrome have a common cause.
This is correct.