I got this incorrect the first time but during review I understood what's going on. Wirth's argument says that efforts to find
a single "manic-depression gene" have failed, and most researchers agree there is
no single gene responsible. Therefore, claims that people are genetically predisposed to manic-depression are false.
To this, Chang responds by agreeing with the evidence but
disputes only the conclusion. He argues that researchers have found evidence that
multiple genes may be involved, and their
interactions could predispose people to manic-depression.
Thus we can say Wirth concludes that, because
no single gene has been identified,
genetic predisposition to manic-depression must be false. Chang criticizes this by pointing out that genetic predisposition could involve
multiple genes, not just one.
A. It presupposes only one possibility where more than one exists.
This fits Chang's criticism perfectly. Wirth assumes that genetic predisposition to manic-depression must involve a single gene. Chang points out that another possibility (multiple interacting genes) exists, which Wirth's argument overlooks. This accurately captures Chang's criticism.B. It depends on separate pieces of evidence that contradict each other.
There is no indication in the argument that Wirth is relying on contradictory evidence. Wirth's argument is based on the consensus that there is no single gene responsible for manic-depression. This does not fit Chang's criticism.C. It relies on the opinion of experts in an area outside the experts’ field of expertise.
There is no suggestion in the argument that the experts Wirth refers to are outside their area of expertise. The experts in the argument are researchers in genetics. In fact, Chang's argument refers to the same set of experts that Wirth refers to. This is not relevant to the argument.D. It disallows in principle any evidence that would disconfirm its conclusion.
Wirth does not explicitly disallow any evidence; instead, he draws a conclusion based on current research findings. Chang is criticizing Wirth for overlooking a different possibility (multiple genes), not for disallowing evidence.This does not accurately capture Chang's criticism.E. It treats something that is merely unlikely as though it were impossible.
Wirth is not claiming that something unlikely is impossible. He is concluding that genetic predisposition to manic-depression is false because no single gene has been found. Chang's criticism is not about probability but about the possibility of multiple genes being involved.This does not address Chang's point.The correct answer is A because Chang's criticism focuses on Wirth's presupposition of a single gene, while Chang suggests there are multiple genes involved, thus highlighting that Wirth considered only one possibility when more than one exists.
I'm still not sure what the probability of these type of questions appearing in the GMAT exam is like, if someone can weigh in on this it'd be helpful because I'm not focusing a lot on these types of LSAT questions for GMAT.