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yc168
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I don't agree with the OA

How does A explain why borrowers with higher credit score have higher default rates when compared to other borrowers ?

A explains that mortgage officers neglect factors other than credit history but that would be true of all groups so doesn't explain why only high credit groups would have a higher default if it's neglected for all groups.

Bunuel ?

I think the key wording in (A) is “much less likely” for borrowers with the highest credit scores. It does not say lenders neglect other risk factors equally for all borrowers.

So lenders may scrutinize lower-score borrowers more carefully, while approving some highest-score borrowers despite other serious risks. That difference in screening can explain why the highest-score group ends up with a surprisingly high mortgage default rate.
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