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mikemcgarry
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holidayhero
A different way.

There are a total of 12 employees (7 men and 5 women)

Probability of 1st person selected being a woman is 5/12
Probability of the 2nd person selected being a woman is 4/11 (4 women left in the 11 remaining employees)

Probability of 1st and 2nd selected both being women
=5/12 X 4/11
= 20/132
which reduces to
= 5/33

Answer E

Hello, why don't we multiply the final answer with 2? Because there are two ways in which we can accomplish this.
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usre123,

The reason we don't have to multiply by two in the solution is because we are drawing from the same pool. In the example you are thinking (https://gmatclub.com/forum/john-has-on-his-shelf-four-books-of-poetry-145499.html), there are two different pools to choose from, novels and reference. In this case, the only pool we're picking from is the pool of women. Of the two picks, we want the first to be a woman, and the second to be a woman. There is no way to "flip" this selection, as the "flip" is the same as our original scenario. In the other problem, the reason we have to multiply by two is because we have two outcomes, the first selection is a novel and the second is a reference, or the first is a reference and the second is a novel.

Hope this makes sense!
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usre123,

The reason we don't have to multiply by two in the solution is because we are drawing from the same pool. In the example you are thinking (https://gmatclub.com/forum/john-has-on-his-shelf-four-books-of-poetry-145499.html), there are two different pools to choose from, novels and reference. In this case, the only pool we're picking from is the pool of women. Of the two picks, we want the first to be a woman, and the second to be a woman. There is no way to "flip" this selection, as the "flip" is the same as our original scenario. In the other problem, the reason we have to multiply by two is because we have two outcomes, the first selection is a novel and the second is a reference, or the first is a reference and the second is a novel.

Hope this makes sense!


awesome, thanks! Now it's perfectly clear
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Hi everyone, here's my solution for Example 2:
We have 7 males + 5 females = 12

The probability that the first choice will be a woman is 5/12 (females/all)
The probability that the second choice will be a woman is 4/11 (for the second run we have 4 women and 11 Persons left)

5/12*4/11 = 5/33
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