Bizzle
what I understand from the question is that the salesperson earns 10% of sales over $100,000.
meaning:
- if sales were $90,000 he gains 0% of that amount
- if sales were of $110,000 he gains 10% of $110,000 which equals $11,000
but according to the solution he gains 10% of $10,000. Where is my misconception. I don't understand.
hi!
so his salary is 25,000+.1(x-100,000), when X>100,000 let's use some numbers to illustrate. say his sales are 120,000, in the formula this would be 25000+.1(120,000-100,000). So he is earning 25,000 + .1(20,000). His commission is ONLY on the amount above 100,000. He doesn't gain a commission on the entire 120,000 in this example. So his total salary would then be 27,000
I know what the answer is and how the math around it works. but regar dint the question stem, how do we know for sure he wins comissions of 10%(x-100,000) and not 10%(x). Thanx