manish8242
Hello Regor60
Winning the cup will be either by A or B how can they both win together? in this case P(A and B) should be ) bcz only one of them will be the winner right? How can we say that both A and B can win at the same time with some (X) probability? Please clarify this.
Thanks
Great question! This is a common source of confusion that highlights the importance of reading GMAT problems carefully.The Key Insight You're Missing: These are
TWO COMPLETELY DIFFERENT sporting events:
- The Super Bowl is the championship for American football (NFL)
- The World Series is the championship for baseball (MLB)
They're not competing for the same trophy! Green Bay plays football, Milwaukee plays baseball. Both championships can absolutely happen in the
same year - they're independent events.
Why P(A and B) ≠ 0: Since these are different sports with different seasons and championships:
- Green Bay can win the Super Bowl in February
- Milwaukee can win the World Series in October
- Both can happen in the same calendar year!
Therefore: \(P(A \text{ and } B) = P(A) \times P(B) = \frac{1}{12} \times \frac{1}{20} = \frac{1}{240}\)
Correct Solution: Using the probability formula for "either/or": \(P(A \text{ or } B) = P(A) + P(B) - P(A \text{ and } B)\)
\(P(\text{either wins}) = \frac{1}{12} + \frac{1}{20} - \frac{1}{240}\)
Converting to common denominator (240): \(= \frac{20}{240} + \frac{12}{240} - \frac{1}{240} = \frac{31}{240} \approx \frac{1}{8}\)
Answer: CKey Takeaway for GMAT: Always identify whether events are:
- Mutually exclusive (can't happen together) → P(A and B) = 0
- Independent (different events that can both occur) → P(A and B) = P(A) × P(B)
Your thinking would be correct if the question asked about two teams competing for the
same championship!