MathRevolution
[GMAT math practice question]
I. \(\frac{1}{2},\frac{2}{3},\frac{3}{4},\frac{4}{5},\frac{5}{6}\)
II. \(\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{3},\frac{1}{4},\frac{1}{5},\frac{1}{6}\)
III. \(\frac{1}{6},\frac{2}{6},\frac{3}{6},\frac{4}{6},\frac{5}{6}\)
For which of the above lists is the average of the numbers less than the median of numbers?
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. II and III
E. I, II and III
Hi...
If you don't want to get into lengthy calculations as it would surely eat into your time, some observations...here is a method...III. \(\frac{1}{6},\frac{2}{6},\frac{3}{6},\frac{4}{6},\frac{5}{6}\)
this is clearly an AP with difference \(\frac{1}{6}\), so MEDIAN = MEANso III is out
ONLY A and B are without IIIwhich means either I is correct or II, but only one
here you have been able to get down to TWO choices out of 5, so
50% chance to answer correctlyBut lets see IIII. \(\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{3},\frac{1}{4},\frac{1}{5},\frac{1}{6}\)
median is 1/4 and highest value is 1/2, which is1/4 away from the median 1/4, so lowest should be 0 to reach medianmean = median at 0,1/4,1/2 but it is 1/6,1/4,1/2
BUT the lowest value is >0, so HIGHER values are MORE farther from the MEDIAN, so MEAN will be above median
so mean>median.... so NO
ans is I or the choice Abut lets see why I is correct..I. \(\frac{1}{2},\frac{2}{3},\frac{3}{4},\frac{4}{5},\frac{5}{6}\)
these can be written as
I. \(1-\frac{1}{2},1-\frac{1}{3},1-\frac{1}{4},1-\frac{1}{5},1-\frac{1}{6}\)
MEAN will be 1-(average of 1/2,1/3,1/4,1/5,1/6)this is OPPOSITE of B, here we are subtracting higher values from 1 in 1/2 and 2/3 as compared to 1/5 and 1/6
so m
MEAN<median