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Bunuel
\(\frac{200^{200} 40^{40}}{20^{20}400^{400}}=\)


A. \(\frac{1}{2^{920}5^{380}}\)

B. \(\frac{1}{2^{240}5^{240}}\)

C. \(\frac{1}{2^{180}5^{180}}\)

D. \(1\)

E. \(2^{180}5^{180}\)

If we re-express all of the factors to have bases of 10, 20, or 40, we can cancel and simplify the expression.

[20^200 x 10^200 x 40^40]/[20^20 x 40^400 x 10^400]

[20^180]/[10^200 x 40^360]

We can re-express 40^360, obtaining:

[20^180]/[10^200 x 20^360 x 2^360]

1/[10^200 x 20^180 x 2^360]

1/[10^200 x 10^180 x 2^180 x 2^360]

1/[10^380 x 2^540]

1/[5^380 x 2^380 x 2^540]

1/[5^380 x 2^920]

Answer: A
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What a great question! The key here is not to get scared by high powers. By looking at the answer choices you can most likely figure out that it is asking you to break the big numbers down into powers of 2 and powers of 5!
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Bunuel
\(\frac{200^{200} 40^{40}}{20^{20}400^{400}}=\)


A. \(\frac{1}{2^{920}5^{380}}\)

B. \(\frac{1}{2^{240}5^{240}}\)

C. \(\frac{1}{2^{180}5^{180}}\)

D. \(1\)

E. \(2^{180}5^{180}\)

Just remember \((m*n)^x\) => \(m^x * n^x\)
and continue expanding the term to the simplest form and voila you will get the answer

Will solve each part individually, so that the solution can be understood clearly.
\(200^{200} 40^{40}\) -(x)
=> \((2^3 * 5^2)^{200} * 2^{120} * 5^{40}\)
=> \(2^{600} * 5^{400} * 2^{120} * 5^{40}\)
=> \(2^{720} * 5^{440}\)

\(20^{20}400^{400}\) -(y)
=> \((2^2 * 5)^{20} * (2^4 * 5^2)^{400}\)
=> \(2^{40} * 5^{20} * 2^{1600} * 5^{800}\)
=> \(2^{1640} * 5^{820}\)


\(\frac{x}{y}\) = \(\frac{1}{2^{1640-720} * 5^{820-440}}\)
\(\frac{x}{y}\) = \(\frac{1}{2^{920}5^{380}}\)

Correct answer A.
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Since the powers of 2 are different for all given options, one can save time by just finding the power of 2 in the question and choosing (A) :)
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